Spanish language Q&A Forum

Algo que no entiendo :

*Aguafiestas* - party crasher ( de donde/por que agua ?)

*Agua Anoche* -  Que significa ? (water last night not possible)

Escuché en varios lugares (canción/calle), una jerga española ?

Gracias de antemano

I was glad that my father came to see me=Me alegré de que mi padre viniera a verme but

I was glad because my father came to see me=Me alegré porque mi padre vino a verme

and

It saddens me that my father came to see me=Me entristece que mi padre viniera a verme

but

It saddens me because my father came to see me=Me entristece porque mi padre vino a verme

I have seen this with other expressions of feeling and when I put it into various translators I always get the same thing.  I realize that changing from "that" to "because" slightly changes the meaning but why does it go from subjunctive to indicative in going from "que" to "porque?"

why did it say it was wrong in the first part

In the quiz, the sentence was "When I go to Spain, I always go to the beach".  - "___________ voy a Espana, siempre voy a la playa"

The answer is "Cuando" without an accent.  In the lesson, it says that cuando without an accent is a relative adverb which introduces a depennt clause.  In the above example, what is the dependent clause that "cuando" is introducing?  I am not a gramarian, but it seems like both of the above clauses are independent.  That may be incorrect, but could you please explain?

Why is it "las puertas y ventanas" and not "las puertas y las ventanas"?  Usually Spanish seems to have two definite articles where English has only one.

Correct sentence in English should read...

It would be better if you talked to the lawyer first

I saw it in spain and "IT WAS WONDERFUL". Shouldn't it be in Imperfecto because we are kind of giving description here of how it was. But it was marked wrong. It was "fue marvillosos" . Please answer???