Repeated “a”, and “dativo de interés”(1) In this sentence the personal “a” is repeated: “ A Pedro y a Pablo les cantaron una canción por su despedida”.
However in this sentence the second “a” is omitted: “ (Les) cantaron una canción a Pedro y Pablo por su despedida.”
Is the second “a” arbitrary or is there a rule for when to omit it?
(2) I notice two uses of IO pronouns in the examples and questions.
The first is the common usage such as giving something to someone, saying something to someone, or taking something from someone. This usage always has a direct object.
The second usage is from a lesson from a higher level, called the “dativo de interés”, which has an entirely different meaning altogether. Instead of always having a DO and giving the DO to someone, there may not be a directobject at all (intransitive verbs), and the IO simply emphasizes that someone is affected by the action.
Sometimes there is a DO: Mi hija pequeña no me come nada.
and sometimes there is not: Ayer nos cayó un buen chaparrón.
Inma’s answer to Thea reflects this type of usage.
Spanish dativo de interés - specific use of Spanish indirect object pronouns
So there are different layers to the usage of the IO.
Could you make a lesson contrasting the different types of IO usage? It could be useful for many of us.
Hi
Why is the following sentence in the imperfect subjunctive? Could it not use the present?
Me gustaría que vieran el deporte como una herramienta para empoderarse.
Thank you!
Please add “los anocheceres” to the lesson as an exception.
Only “Los amaneceres” is mentioned.
All the examples have nouns of the same gender/number on both ends of the sentence. What if it was "Maria es igual de alt_ que los gemelos"? Is it "alta" because Maria, or is "altos" because "los gemelos"?
When does the -o ending in the third person singular of the pretérito indefinido get a tilde en when does it not? P.e. "he spoke" = habló, but "she said" = dijo. Has it something to do with regular and irregular verbs?
Some examples use the verb “estar”. But can we ever use “ser”? Ex: “Mis primos fueron aburridos hasta que viajaron a españa.” Thanks.
(1) In this sentence the personal “a” is repeated: “ A Pedro y a Pablo les cantaron una canción por su despedida”.
However in this sentence the second “a” is omitted: “ (Les) cantaron una canción a Pedro y Pablo por su despedida.”
Is the second “a” arbitrary or is there a rule for when to omit it?
(2) I notice two uses of IO pronouns in the examples and questions.
The first is the common usage such as giving something to someone, saying something to someone, or taking something from someone. This usage always has a direct object.
The second usage is from a lesson from a higher level, called the “dativo de interés”, which has an entirely different meaning altogether. Instead of always having a DO and giving the DO to someone, there may not be a directobject at all (intransitive verbs), and the IO simply emphasizes that someone is affected by the action.
Sometimes there is a DO: Mi hija pequeña no me come nada.
and sometimes there is not: Ayer nos cayó un buen chaparrón.
Inma’s answer to Thea reflects this type of usage.
Spanish dativo de interés - specific use of Spanish indirect object pronouns
So there are different layers to the usage of the IO.
Could you make a lesson contrasting the different types of IO usage? It could be useful for many of us.
Are there other similar idiomatic expressions or must one use the conventional gramatical constructs? For example:
If you were me... (Tú que yo?)
If I were him... (Yo que él?)
If he were you... (Él que tu?)
etc.
I thought there was supposed to be an article for the things we like except for people or places. Example says "Le gusta comer pescado." Inspead of Le gusta comer el pescado.
to summarise some of the info provided in the comments.
am i right to say the below:
Le encantan los documentales de historia, que/lo que/lo cual (yo) encuentro aburrido = I find [the fact] that she loves history documentaries boring.
Le encantan los documentales de historia, que/los que/los cuales (yo) encuentro aburridoS (agreement of the adjective is necessary here) = I find history documentaries boring.
meaning to say, que = lo que = lo cual are interchangeable and replaceable with no change in meaning. same for que = los que = los cuales ?
When we are referring back to people or persons in Spanish both words are feminine. So by translating, "for those arriving" it would have to be "las que llegan" no? If not what masculine word is "los" referring back to? Thanks.
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level