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6,019 questions • 9,834 answers • 1,015,074 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,019 questions • 9,834 answers • 1,015,074 learners
What does this expression mean?
I understand except for the last word "queráis ". I was expecting to see " queréis " for the "you want" at the end.
Looking up queráis, I see that it is the present subjunctive and have read that it is used if there is a change in the subject.
I can't see a change in subject. The first part of the sentence has "you" as subject ans so does the second part.
I expect that I've missed something crucial here so please help me to understand.
Thanks.
I just saw it in the forum and I think it should be added to the lesson since it is quite common.
I'm confused by the title of this article: "personal "a" verbs". Isn't the issue whether the direct object is a person or not, rather than the verb used? In addition to the verbs mentioned, isn't the same true of all the verbs on https://progress.lawlessspanish.com/learn/theme/830919 as well as necesitar, golpear, ... indeed any transitive verb?
C'mon señoritas! This tale is wide open for at least one more chapter, maybe two.
I was just watching "¿Quién mato a Sara?" (takes place in Mexico) where a security guard in a parking lot tells a character waiting in his car to meet with someone "Estamos por cerrar". The English subtitles render it as something like "We're about to close."
Would saying "estamos para cerrar" also make sense in this context? Would the meaning be different, and if so how? Is it a regional/dialect thing? Does the nuance have to do with the implication of intent, as was generalized in another post, or is it more complex...?
I'm confused by this pair of expressions... they seem like they want to be different and yet the meanings seem confusingly close... I know language isn't always logical, but I'm just trying to get a feel for it. Thank you in advance...
Spanish names for:
a ball valve
Inside or female threads
male or outside threads
In the quiz, the sentence was "When I go to Spain, I always go to the beach". - "___________ voy a Espana, siempre voy a la playa"
The answer is "Cuando" without an accent. In the lesson, it says that cuando without an accent is a relative adverb which introduces a depennt clause. In the above example, what is the dependent clause that "cuando" is introducing? I am not a gramarian, but it seems like both of the above clauses are independent. That may be incorrect, but could you please explain?
Why is the usage of nosotros as above been marked wrong
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