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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,921 questions • 9,690 answers • 980,214 learners
Wouldn't it be easier to translate "No tenía más que unas monedas en el bolsillo." to "He didn't have more than a few coins in his pocket." rather than "He only had a few coins in his pocket."? This type of translation would work for the "más que +noun" instances.
Can "No tienes más que decirlo y yo estaré allí para ayudarte." be translated to "You don't have to say anything more than it/that and I will be there to help you." rather than "You just have to say it and I will be there to help you."?
Which one is correct:
Tres es más que dos.
Tres es más de dos.
I've used "le" for men AND women (e.g. "Un gusto conocerle!", "Pásenle" etc.), but the article says it's only for men. This is Spanish spoken in a Mexican-American household, so I don't know how that affects things-- could be improper Spanish, but I thought I'd check because I hear it often.
A couple of quizzes ago i was marked wrong for putting the object pronouns in front of the verbal structure. Unfortunately I can't get back to that quiz now to check, but I was sure they could go either before the whole verbal structure of be added onto the gerund/infinitive. The correction on my answer was to put the pronouns at the end of the infinitive/gerund.
there is a sentence in the notes where it says
'Hablo con ella cuando llega a casa. = I will speak with her when she gets home.'
Since this is a non general statement of using cuando, but a future specified situation, shouldn't we use subjuntive? there is a note on this. are is this the same thing but different point of view?
Hablo con ella cuando llegue a casa.
You: Sin embargo, mis amigos contaron a los niños historias de miedo.Kwizbot: Sin embargo, mis amigos contaron a los niños cuentos de miedo..
Why "historias de miedo" marked wrong after a los niños, is there any rule we have to just put cuneto instead of historia after 'a los niños'. Please answer.
Thansk!!
Oops. The webpage cut out part of my response. Right after I wrote
Hacer + Infinitive, the second paragraph contains;
and here I quoted from the lesson:
.."There is a tendency to use indirect pronouns me,te,le,nos,os,les when the verb in intransitive. However, if the verb is transitive, we usually use direct object pronouns me,te,lo,la,nos,os,los,las.
That's where I asked if this is misprint, or is referring to common mistakes that we make?
The remainder of my comment got posted correctly. Hope that my points are more clear now.
Why does ‘a ti’ carry an accent in your examples ? I understand “a mí’ does it to differentiate itself from ‘mi’ but there is no reason for ‘ti’ to carry an accent.
My neighbours enjoy playing music really loudly.
"with verbs like gustar"
https://progress.lawlessspanish.com/learn/theme/707648
Nowhere in there does it list "divertir"
I'm unclear on why it wasn't divierten like it would have been "disfrutan"
Judging by the very high quality of Spanish tuition offered by Kwiziq, I'm sure that you would like to ensure that your texts, too, always convey correct information. A "lunation" takes about 29½ days [this is an average, sometimes it can be several hours longer, or shorter] - not 28. So the moon does not perform 13 orbits every year. Instead, 12 of its circuits are completed in 354 days, so an Islamic year is usually about 11 days shorter than [our] Gregorian year.
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