Spanish language Q&A Forum

Does it matter when you use which?

Once I was in a store here in Mexico and the clerk asked me if I wanted a “canastilla”.  I didn’t know what she meant until she brought me a plastic shopping basket.  My Mexican friends laughed when I said that I would have understood “canastita”.  I still don’t know a rule for when to use -illa.  I do know that “ventanilla” is the word for the small airplane window so I’m guessing that in general the “-illa” suffix is used for physically small things and not for any of the other uses.

 But the suffix -it@ is used a lot.  “Cafecito” is a common word and there are even restaurants that are named “El Cafecito”.  A Spanish teacher once told me that the Mexicans used to use diminutives in order to set themselves apart from the Conquistadores, who made demanding, forceful requests.  

Does querer que trigger the subjunctive if it's something you're wishing for yourself? 

The instructions say to use "indefinido" but the indicitive mood examples use imperfecto. Also, the question asked on the quiz only has imperfecto and futuro simple as options. I went with imperfecto and it was marked correct.

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If the main clause uses a tense that implies a past action, for example El Pretérito Indefinido or El Pretérito Pluscuamperfecto, then the por si/por si acaso clause uses a past tense.

No entiendo porque necesitamos usar nos en esta frase

Si yo quisiera decir "the more people i meet, the happier i will be", ¿sería "Cuanta más gente conozca yo, más feliz seré", o "Cuanta más gente a la que conozca yo, más feliz seré?

I understand it grammatically or literately. What I am trying to figure out is what the semantics is. The sentence seems breaking the semantic chain of the text. What is the author trying to tell us?

I just did an exercise and 'No todavía me he vestido para la fiesta'  was wrong. The correct answer was  'Todavía no me he vestido para la fiesta'.  I don't understand the difference. Help please.