Always using the definite article with what you are good (or bad) atI have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
Hola,
Are there particular differences in using estar por vs pensar in expressing intention to do something?
'Estoy por comer helado.'
'Pienso comer helado.'
Gracias
I would have said “en el sol”, not “al sol”
Correct sentence in English should read...
It would be better if you talked to the lawyer first
The translation for final sentence in this exercise ("I would like to visit Medellín next year) was confusing for me.
I wrote: "Querría a visitar a Medellín el próximo año. But "the best answer" was "Quiero visitar Medellín ..."
I find this confusing because I understand "quiero" to translate to I want/would like -- not I would want/I would like.
Please help up clear this confusion.
Regards,
I. Pati Ecuamiga
i am having a hard time knowing which preposition to use ("of the", "by the", "from the", "to the", et al)
Not to mention which indirect object pronoun goes before the other (She gives it to him in the morning "Ella se lo da por la mañana")?
I saw it in spain and "IT WAS WONDERFUL". Shouldn't it be in Imperfecto because we are kind of giving description here of how it was. But it was marked wrong. It was "fue marvillosos" . Please answer???
I have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
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