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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,723 questions • 9,210 answers • 906,718 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,723 questions • 9,210 answers • 906,718 learners
Does the verb "costar" always take the preposition "a" when referring to the person OR entity upon which the cost is falling? Here, "los gobiernos" are not people or favorite pets, yet the personal a is apparently indicated.
Obviously Hacer does not mean to walk and we already know that the Camino is a walking event. Wouldn’t it be better to just go ahead and translate as “doing the Camino?” Perfectly acceptable English and a more accurate translation, it would seem.
Is there a way I can see a list of my mistakes from the tests I have done?
It would be useful to identify the areas I consistently make the same errors in so that I can focus on those specifically to reinforce everything.
Si usted hubiera venido antes, yo le habría atendido.If you had come before, I would have served you.
Ella hubiera venido.She would have come.
Ella habria venido.
Is this expression used only in Spain? I cannot find more information about the usage of this idiom. My teacher has not heard of this either.
Good morning.
What is the difference in meaning between "Poder + estar + infinitive" vs "poder + infinitive"?
In this example we have the same subject in both clauses, but still use the subjunctive:
Te pondrías muy triste si me vieras sufrir.
Is this because "si" is used? Would it still use the subjunctive if we use "que" in the above sentence?
Thanks.
You: Sin embargo, mis amigos contaron a los niños historias de miedo.Kwizbot: Sin embargo, mis amigos contaron a los niños cuentos de miedo..
Why "historias de miedo" marked wrong after a los niños, is there any rule we have to just put cuneto instead of historia after 'a los niños'. Please answer.
Thansk!!
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