Always using the definite article with what you are good (or bad) atI have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
Hola. Please help me this, im confused
Te dejé tus llaves. I know it means " I left your keys ", but what's te doing in this sentence?
Does it change the meaning or grammatically wrong if I don't have "te" in this sentence.
Sincerely thank you
In my experience, and according to my dictionary, reflection (in a mirror or an observation) is el reflejo, unless it is the action in physics of something bouncing of something else
I've listened over and over and can't hear the Y in "José y María".
Is it not there or am I just unable to hear it?
hi team,
I have some questions.
´Es muy agradable porque la vuelta al frío es mucho más amena de esta manera.´ why is mucho being used instead of muy?
I thought that it will be used to describe ´amena´, an adjective.
´que ocurre a finales de septiembre ´. why is finales the plural being used and without articles ´los´?
Thanks in advance.
Hola,
The first sentence above uses 'mayor' to mean eldest. How would you say 'elder'?
How can you be sure which is meant between the two?
How do you for the superlatives and the opposites (the least) of the comparatives?
Muchas gracias.
Saludos,
Colin
Hi, in this exercise, Lola 'odia a los gatos' but I think that Danny "odia los perros", in Lola's translation.
Is there a difference in whether the personal 'a' is needed in each case? I weighed it up as - it is a definable person/pet? and I opted for 'not' using personal a because they hate dogs/cats in general. Hmm, but then again, they are sort of talking about their own pets?
Then there's the question of 'odiar' being clearly a strong feeling... but not exactly a strong affection.
Please help!
cheers,
What is the problem with either Pónselos allí OR Se los pon allí ?? Both are grammatically correct yet it seems sometimes that these "tests" go out of their way to make responses more difficult an obcure than they should be.
I have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
In the video, the second sentence sounded to me like ´los deportistas griegos..´ But in the text it says ´los deportistas ciegos´. Since it talked about las Olimpiadas, would ´griegos´more likely be what the narrator said?
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