Passives with "estar"During the translation process, these possible answers were displayed:
>
The best answer is:
La prosperidad es representada por el buey [> thus, my answer "está representada" was marked wrong]
You could also say:
La prosperidad es representada con el buey,
Or also:
La prosperidad es simbolizada por el buey,
Or also:
La bonanza está representada con el buey,
- . - . - . -
It seemed to me that this particular passive construction focussed on the *result* rather than the action, so I used "estar"... It is interesting that you do allow the use of an "estar" passive with "bonanza", but not with the others; (is there therefore something different about the word "bonanza"?)
- . - . - . -
However, in the opening sentence: "El año chino es representado cada año con un animal", I think I can see how in this particular sentence we are focussing on the action (rather than the result).
- . - . - . -
We discussed this point in the Q&A of Forming the Spanish passive voice with ser + participle (+ por) (passive - simple tenses) - and I mentioned it again in Forming the Spanish passive voice with ser + participle (+ por) (passive - simple tenses)
I don't understand the significance of !Qué bárbaro! in the second paragraph. It seems out of place in relation to the description of the dessert, but I'm sure I don't fully understand its meaning. According to my dictionary, it translates to "how barbaric" --- but why would it be characterized in that manner?
Va vestido elegantemente, va pegando a los pobres. I can’t find lesson note on this or in dictionary. May I know if this is a grammar point such as ver + participles to mean something ?
Is it correct, in addition to "Whose books are those?" that this could also be translated as "From whom are those books?" I realize that in a perfect world, the context would clear up any ambiguity, but am I correct that the latter is a valid translation?
Thanks!
In the answer, the first sentence is future tense, but the second sentence is conditional tense? What is going on? Why are not both these sentences either future or conditional?
During the translation process, these possible answers were displayed:
>
The best answer is:
La prosperidad es representada por el buey [> thus, my answer "está representada" was marked wrong]
You could also say:
La prosperidad es representada con el buey,
Or also:
La prosperidad es simbolizada por el buey,
Or also:
La bonanza está representada con el buey,
- . - . - . -
It seemed to me that this particular passive construction focussed on the *result* rather than the action, so I used "estar"... It is interesting that you do allow the use of an "estar" passive with "bonanza", but not with the others; (is there therefore something different about the word "bonanza"?)
- . - . - . -
However, in the opening sentence: "El año chino es representado cada año con un animal", I think I can see how in this particular sentence we are focussing on the action (rather than the result).
- . - . - . -
We discussed this point in the Q&A of Forming the Spanish passive voice with ser + participle (+ por) (passive - simple tenses) - and I mentioned it again in Forming the Spanish passive voice with ser + participle (+ por) (passive - simple tenses)
this is a helpful lesson with good examples.
but I’m confused. the lesson says: The verb is conjugated in the 3rd person singular or plural, according to the subject in the sentence.
aren’t the singular or plural things the objects of the sentences?
The difference between an "event still to happen" and one that "will happen" can be determined only by the ability to predict the future. It is not a grammatical issue. So neither the indicative nor subjunctive choice is grammatically incorrect. It's a semantic difference, not a grammatical one. I've seen you make very different choices -- different from what I thought was meant.
are both these correct
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