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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,079 questions • 9,957 answers • 1,037,237 learners
Hola Inma,
Please could you advise me?
When speaking casually as in the conversation here, is it generally more common to use 'estar' than 'sentir' regarding 'to feel'?
Gracias :)
One of the choices was "Comportándose" which was marked wrong. However, according to this lesson, wouldn't that also be correct:
Using the Spanish gerund as a command %252Fsearch%253Fs%253Dusing%252Bthe%252Bgerund%252Bas%252Ba%252Bcommand
Maybe I'm missing some reason why it doesn't work in this case? Thanks!
The lesson says that sentences can't start with "en cambio", but it also says that "en cambio" can be preceded by a full stop (which I understand to be a period). Am I missing something? Thanks!
Hola todos,
Hoping you are all well.
I have 2 questions on this exercise:
that broke the monotony of black and white.
1-) re: que rompía la monotonía del blanco y negro.
I wrote: "del negro y blanco."
Could you tell me why the Spanish inverts the adjectives. (I even checked with Reverso and they translated it the same way.
2) re: and people liked it.
Kwizbot y a la gente le gustaba.
You y le gustaba a la gente.
Don't know why this particular arrangement would be the only one possible?
Thank you.
Nicole
one of the options was: quitarle importancia a los prooblemas. I can't undertand the le. Why not les, in order to correspond with the los problemas?
Muchas gracias !
Ελισάβετ
________ (Busquemos) un apartamento más grande para los cuatro.
Why does this sentence need a subjunctive (as stated in the hint)?
When is one preferred over the other?
I know the -- if after a noun is doesn't make since with " which or that," then use " de que" if you intend it to be " that"
But like what about the other times?
I swear it almost seems like other than what I said above, it's interchangeable.
Thanks.
Looking at: "... fue la capital del Califato … que fue proclamado por Abderramán III en 929" > My first thoughts were that AbdulRahman III had perhaps proclaimed Córdoba as his capital in 929 AD, which would have required "proclamada" to agree with the feminine noun "capital". Then I remembered that he had actually declared himself [very controversially !] to be "the Caliph of all Muslims, everywhere" (including those in Baghdad, and Syria, and even those in the Fatimid Empire in North Africa !) - so "proclamado" presumably agrees with "Califato"?
As I'm sure Inma knows, Seville was the first capital of Al-Ándalus [was it?], and Abdul-Rahman the First transferred his seat of power to Córdoba in 766 AD.
Why isn't the personal "a" used, "hacia A sus padres"?
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