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5,944 questions • 9,714 answers • 987,580 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,944 questions • 9,714 answers • 987,580 learners
I just took a quiz that included this (correct) answer: "ya sea salado o dulce" to complete the sentence "Me encanta la cocina francesa...." Why doesn't the 1st adjective change to agree in gender with "cocina"? I picked it anyway, as there was no option with "salada" (and it was the best available option) but it still struck me as incorrect.
¿Me ________ un café por favor?Could I have a coffee please?(HINT: Conjugate the usted form of "poner" in El Presente)
In the section about no porque you say: "if the causal subordinate clause is negative, it allows both the indicative and the subjunctive (without changing the meaning)."
A says that no porque must be used with the subjunctive according to the Cervantes Institute, and you (Inma) seem to agree with him, saying: "with no porque you use the subjunctive."
I just did a Kwiz where "no porque era" was a correct option.
So, what is going on there? Can no porque take both the subjunctive and the indicative or just the subjunctive?
Traer is shown as meaning "to bring," but the conjugated examples translate as "is bringing" or "are bringing." How did the "ing" forms get in there?
Could you please elaborate more on which condition to use feminine or masculine? For example, why not a lo francés, since it's a style, and why not a ciegos, but a ciegas? Thank you!
In the test, we are asked to translate 'Also, Ken Follet used it (to write his literary works)'. At first, I translated it as 'Ken Follet la usa', but then I noticed I was being specifically asked to construct a sentence using 'se'. Assuming a passive sentence was required, I put 'Además, se usó por Ken Follet', but was corrected with 'Además, Ken Follet la usó'. Surely, there is something not quite right here?
Why does the use the preterite perfect rather than the simple preterite?
In the example Nosotros podemos salir antes del trabajo temprano hoy, wouldn't it mean the same thing to say Nosotros podemos salir del trabajo temprano hoy.
Buenas tardes,
Within the context of the passage, would I be right in saying that, "...sobran guionistas a patadas..." means "there are plenty of or more than enough screenwriters"?
Gracias de antemano 😊
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