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5,782 questions • 9,357 answers • 925,195 learners
Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,782 questions • 9,357 answers • 925,195 learners
why do some examples have 'de' before the infinitive and others not?
En inglés, se escribe 'indifference' ;-)
Hola
If you wanted to say we like to run, would you still use 'gusta'? I.e. Nos gusta correr? and the same with Se gusta correr and Os gusta correr?
Gracias :)
He imprimido nuestras fotografías del viaje, ¿quieres ver ________?I have printed the pictures of our trip, do you want to see some?(HINT: Choose the correct singular form.)
I don't understand why alguna is correct here and not algunas. I get that alguna can mean 'the odd one' but this test question doesn't look like the odd one, and it almost exactly matches an example in the quick lesson, where the correct form is given as algunas.
Hi, consider including this type of example in the lesson. By the time i read the whole lesson i thought it was necessary to have a short pronoun even though it doesn’t explicitly say that.
Why not use "te" as the indirect object?
Can you describe in what general contexts these would be used?
Are they interchangeable or are meanings slightly different depending who you’re talking to? Example such as when talking to children.
I'm confused why the answer for #10 is cierto when the translation is "some/a bit" and not "certain."
consider:
(1) she has made many sacrifices for her children
(2) she has made many books for her children
why
in (1) "for" --> por
in (2) "for" --> para
The lesson says that sentences can't start with "en cambio", but it also says that "en cambio" can be preceded by a full stop (which I understand to be a period). Am I missing something? Thanks!
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