Spanish language Q&A Forum

In this example, "No me gusta nada ir de compras" why the preposition DE after the word NADA was omitted? 

Do you mean that *ese* is used when both conditions are true or just one?

Why is cantor translated to PLAY instead of SING in the example?

I don't feel like there is good guidance in this.  I see what appears to be mixed modes- Mi and ti, but not nos- it's nosotros.  If nosotros is the valid pronoun for this form, why is ti valid and tu not valid? There is no guidance here and I am constantly getting these screwed up.  To me, nosotros=we, nos=us, and nuestra=our.  I get it if they truly use those in that way, but please call it out as an exception so I know to memorize it that way.  Otherwise I am trying to find and fit a pattern and am hitting the wall trying to pass these tests in a way that I know I can replicate this in a week or a month from now and get it correctly then as well, and not just memorize it long enough to pass the test today.

I don't understand why the answer is "ustedes."  The speaker seems to be talking to a single child which would suggest singular, familiar and not formal and plural.  Help me understand why.

That film is not appropriate for you. You are only 10 years old.

(HINT: Use the right pronoun after the preposition.)

nos

ustedes

sus

ti

Hola Inma,

"haciendo la vida más fácil al usuario" and "costará a los gobiernos millones de dólares".

I wonder if it would be wrong to say haciéndole la vida más fácil al usuario and les costará a los gobiernos millones de dólares, instead. 

Saludos

Ελισάβετ

When you click on this sentence in this lesson, it sounds like Quiero mas peras.  Am I right or am i not hearing it correctly

Hola! Podrías explicar por qué tendríamos que usar 'sonara' aquí en lugar de 'suene' o 'haya sonado'? Serían todas correctas y simplemente significan cosas diferentes? Gracias!