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Let me take a look at that...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,817 questions • 9,524 answers • 952,671 learners
In the introduction to this lesson, you say the meaning is similar to using "haber plus infinitive". I think you mean haber plus past participle i.e. the perfect tense
I wonder if there is an error in this question:
Este hotel, ________ inauguración fue ayer, va a recibir muchos turistas alemanes.
I think that the answer should be cuyo (because hotel is a masculine noun), but the Kwiziq answer on the test question is cuya. Is this a mistake on Kwiziq's part, or am I not understanding something?
when would you use soler (imperfect) + verb rather than the actual imperfect of the verb? For example why in the first example above wouldnt you say
yo cantaba
instead of Yo solía cantar
I would have thought that A had similar structure to B, as in action#1 was interrupted by action#2:
A: Te ________ hasta que me aburrí y me fui.
I was waiting for you until I got bored and left
B: Ella estaba lavándose el pelo cuando él llegó.
She was washing her hair when he arrived.
But the answer to A was “estuve esperando” not “estaba esperando.”
Does it mean that in B the woman didn’t stop washing her hair even the man arrived, but in A the waiting totally completed?
Question:
Queda muy ________ arroz, no podemos hacer la paella.
Answer: poca
I understand the explanation of when to use poco/poca/pocas/pocos but I don't understand why in this circumstance it is feminine, because I thought arroz is masculine. Is 'arroz' actually feminine, or is it because 'la paella' is feminine?
Hola,
Una de las personajes del programa española que veo dice lo siguiente:
"A ti se te da muy bien coser."
¿Qué significa? En este caso, "te" es un ejemplo del dativo del interés, ¿verdad? ¿A quién es conjugado "darse"? Al final, ¿hay una lección sobre esta construcción?
Muchas gracias
I have encountered real-life examples using both indicative and subjunctive with "una vez que..." and I'm just hoping to confirm or correct my understanding of how this works, please...? For examples, In an article about animals' senses of smell, in discussing the properties of volatile scent compounds I read "Una vez que se vaporiza, puede extenderse rápidamente por el aire" and in a tutorial for making tortillas mexicanas I found "Una vez que sepas cómo hacer tortillas..." I'm thinking that the first takes the indicative because its describing something factual understood to happen routinely, whereas the second takes the subjunctive because it's referring to something that from the writer's point of view hasn't happened yet or is more a hypothetical idea. Is this an accurate way to understand this or am I missing something...? If this is accurate, does it generally hold true with other, similar constructions like those discussed in this lesson? Thanks in advance, as I appreciate the help!
"Hurry, Run!" Can I interpret "Hurry" as Command, too? If so, none of the options is appropriate.
In an e-mail entitled: "A new error has been submitted by a user [#252851]", Laura Lawless today (4th May) asked me to repost this here:
>
Question 6 in the [first] 'StudyPlan' quiz which I did on 3rd May, required a translation for:
"You two, wash your hair!"
The 'vosotros' part was already provided for us, so I chose:
Vosotros dos, ¡A lavaros el pelo!
However, I was marked incorrect, because you said that another possible option is:
Vosotros dos, ¡A lavarse el pelo!
>> But surely the "-se" suffix is not compatible with "vosotros"? … i.e., it has to be '-os', [only '-os', not both].
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