Spanish language Q&A Forum

It appears to me that the better answer for "we have been" would be "hemos estado" rather than "hemos ido," which seems to me to say "we have gone."  In English, there is a difference between "been" and "gone."  Could you please advise.  Thank you.

As someone else pointed out this is a bad translation of English. In English it would be said that, "It's a good thing I left Miguel!" I don't buy the British translation that was proposed as I have literally never heard that. 

HELP:  Translation of "He goes to his friend's house" 

1 Va a la casa de su amigo

2 Va a casa de su amigo

Is the definite article "la" casa necessary or does it make no difference?

Are both correct with no subtle difference in meaning?

I have searched the internet and KWIZIQ and can find no answer.

Many thanks,

Ian

Ian

There was a question in one of the quizzes I took and it led me to this grammar topic (questions with qué):

Which flowers do you prefer?  

¿ _____ flores prefieres ? 

I put cuales in the blank, but was marked wrong, it said the answer was qué. 

I went to the lesson on cual/cuales (interrogative pronouns) and there was a sample sentence referring to flowers, using cuales prefieres.  

In the English translation to the quiz it uses which and I assumed that a select few flowers were being referred to, thus the answer should be cuales. It is a bit ambiguous. 

a ti TE gusta, NO?