Spanish language Q&A Forum

It appears to me that the better answer for "we have been" would be "hemos estado" rather than "hemos ido," which seems to me to say "we have gone."  In English, there is a difference between "been" and "gone."  Could you please advise.  Thank you.

when would you use soler (imperfect) + verb  rather than the actual imperfect of the verb? For example why in the first example above wouldnt you say

yo cantaba

instead of Yo solía cantar

I have read the answer given to Ralph.  At the very least this is a VERY bad example to give in a lesson.  The answer demonstrates that either tense could be used depending on the message the writer wishes to convey. 

This is taken from a rather unpleasant context. But I still want to know what the grammar behind it is. Why does this have se at the end? Would ¡Exprópie! work the same way?

As always, thank you!

If gustar is followed by a verb, you always use gusta, right? Example: Me gusta nadar con los delfines. VS Me gustan los delfines. 

Am I understanding that correctly? 

In your example of the 

El Imperfecto de Subjuntivo

You're using the verb haber ie 

Hubiera  hubiese etc 

So what's the preterito pluscuamperfecto de subjuntivo? 

I thought that was

 hubiera  hubiese

I thought el imperfecto de subjuntivo was the past subjuntivo ie

Tuviera

Fuera

Pusiera

Etc