llamar with indirect or direct objectsi read from one of the question asked before in one of the grammar lesson, and it is confirmed that llamar is a transitive verb and takes direct object but comes with a preposition A because it is personal a. llamar + a + alguien.
But then i also came across llamar a la puerta for example. why is there a preposition A?
or did i get it wrong that it is not personal A but a fixed expression with llamar + a + any direct objects?
voy a llamar a Juan = voy a llamarlo, voy a llamar a la puerta = voy a llamarla.
But i did come across sentences that do not use preposition a for llamar.
le llamo idiota a juan - i called juan idiot. is this correct?
Other than calling people directly like telephoning or shouting for them, we can also call them names. is this where there wont be preposition A?
sorry for my errors as i am still not familiar with using the llamar verb.
Select the option with the verb in the correct form of the imperfect tense.
Cuando era pequeño, a Hassan siempre le gusta el güiro. Cuando era pequeño, a Hassan siempre le gustaba el güiro. Cuando era pequeño, a Hassan siempre le gustaban el güiro. Cuando era pequeño, a Hassan siempre le gustan el güiro.Hello, could esto and aquello suit in these sentences ?
If not, when can I use esto and aquello ? and when musn't I use ello ?
Muchas gracias.
i read from one of the question asked before in one of the grammar lesson, and it is confirmed that llamar is a transitive verb and takes direct object but comes with a preposition A because it is personal a. llamar + a + alguien.
But then i also came across llamar a la puerta for example. why is there a preposition A?
or did i get it wrong that it is not personal A but a fixed expression with llamar + a + any direct objects?
voy a llamar a Juan = voy a llamarlo, voy a llamar a la puerta = voy a llamarla.
But i did come across sentences that do not use preposition a for llamar.
le llamo idiota a juan - i called juan idiot. is this correct?
Other than calling people directly like telephoning or shouting for them, we can also call them names. is this where there wont be preposition A?
sorry for my errors as i am still not familiar with using the llamar verb.
Sometimes, when Spanish words sound similar to English words, my brain automatically connects them to English words. In this case, my brain associates varios/varias with the English word 'various'. Is this a correct assumption?
In English, various provides more clarity than the word 'some' in that it denotes small differences among the various objects that are being described. Is that the case for Spanish too?
Re: ¿En qué trabajas / trabaja? What do you do? ¿A qué te dedicas / se dedica? What do you do?
Hello, Hope you, the team and families and friends are all well in these difficult times. I was wondering what the difference is if I were to say: "¿A qué trabajas? Since per the lesson this means: "If you want to ask someone what he/she does for a living, you can ask this way: ¿En qué trabajas? What do you do? (Lit: In what do you work?) I included "trabajas" in my reply, but it was marked as incorrect. Thank you for being there and helping out. Nicole
Can "Hemos quedado" mean "we have arranged to meet" AND /OR "we met"?
Might it also be understood as "We stayed"? I know quedarse should be used for staying somewhere.
The test asked to translate "I like white wine" to Spanish, but indicated "Me gusta el vino blanco" was the correct answer. The English sentence seemed unspecific to me, as though the speaker was making a general statement about a category of wine they liked. To add an article seems to imply the speaker likes a specific kind of wine ("I like the white wine"). Is this the same implication in Spanish? Could one say "me gusta vino blanco"? Or is an article always required, and unspecific preferences would require "un/una"?
Thank you.
Ya tienen tres niñas, ojalá el próximo sea un niño.
vs.
Ya tienen tres niñas, ojalá el próximo será un niño.
Could both of these be correct? Or would it have to be the former simply because of the need for the subjunctive mood following ojalá? The english side of my brain wants the latter to be correct too... (something like "they already have three girls; hopefully the next one will be a boy.")
Why does the accent change from comprárselos to cómpreselos depending on the conjugation? Does the stressed syllable always change in the imperative form?
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