Are we supposed to believe that an adult native speaker wrote this?Hi there.
I (a native Spanish speaker) heve been
reading texts from the French version of this site for a couple weeks,
and after learning that there is a version that teaches Spanish I've
come to take a look out of curiosity.
And wow. After
reading this text I'm quite sure I'm going to stop using this site to
learn French, just in case the quality of the French texts is anything like that of this supposedly C1 Spanish text. That "habré" in the
first sentence should be "tendré", most commas are misplaced and the
connectors... I mean, I guess they sound correct if you have just read
their meaning in a dictionary and have never heard anyone use them, but
to a native they sound like Google Translate, or worse. The verb tenses
used are also wrong. Technically ok if you've just read the relevant
chapter in a grammar book, but an absolute pain for any native ears.
If
a native speaker wrote this as a highschool composition their teacher
would spend a whole red pen trying to correct it, and they might sent
the author to the hospital just in case they have just had a concussion.
Later edit: sorry If I come up a little cranky and dismissive. I just feel like a fool after realizing that the quality of the texts I've been using for French reading practice is probably very low.
In an example above you say, "Ellos estan delgados". I thought SER was used to describe physical characteristics i.e. "El es alto." To say Ellos estan delgados would imply they are thin now but they didn't used to be thin. Or that they appear thin. Or am I wrong?
Hi there.
I (a native Spanish speaker) heve been reading texts from the French version of this site for a couple weeks, and after learning that there is a version that teaches Spanish I've come to take a look out of curiosity.
And wow. After reading this text I'm quite sure I'm going to stop using this site to learn French, just in case the quality of the French texts is anything like that of this supposedly C1 Spanish text. That "habré" in the first sentence should be "tendré", most commas are misplaced and the connectors... I mean, I guess they sound correct if you have just read their meaning in a dictionary and have never heard anyone use them, but to a native they sound like Google Translate, or worse. The verb tenses used are also wrong. Technically ok if you've just read the relevant chapter in a grammar book, but an absolute pain for any native ears.
If a native speaker wrote this as a highschool composition their teacher would spend a whole red pen trying to correct it, and they might sent the author to the hospital just in case they have just had a concussion.
Later edit: sorry If I come up a little cranky and dismissive. I just feel like a fool after realizing that the quality of the texts I've been using for French reading practice is probably very low.
I have seen llevarse and tomarse used more frequently than tardarse and demorarse. Is this the more common colloquial way of saying "to take time", or is this perhaps a regional difference? For example --
Me llevó un poco más de tiempo que de costumbre dormirme.
Me tomé un tiempo para pensarlo.
Le llevó mucho tiempo para elegir un sombrero.
Nos llevó media hora montar la tienda.
Why does the accent change from comprárselos to cómpreselos depending on the conjugation? Does the stressed syllable always change in the imperative form?
I thought that Habrian is in the future, but I have seen it used many times as not in the future. Are these two interchangeable?
Is it interchangeable to say something like
"Quizá mañana entienda más.""Quizás mañana entienda mas."
Just as 'tal vez' and "quizás" are interchangeable, with no fast rules on them, is it the same for using quizá and quizás or is there some guide for when they can/can't be used?
also, is it impossible to use quizá/quizás/tal vez using future tenses?
examples:
"Quizá iré a la biblioteca pasado mañana"
"Tal vez conocerás aquel varón cuando venga"
"Quizás recibiré una mejor evaluación cuando mejore mis debilidades en mi trabajo"
I’m not quite clear about the use of the ‘se tardan’ plural. The examples given are with a plural number of hours/minutes. Are the time units the ‘subject’ of the passive? In other words if the time was one hour or one minute, could you still use the plural verb? Or is there some other rule that indicates singular or plural? Or are they just equivalent?
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