Spanish language Q&A Forum

why is "pretérito perfecto" translated as "present perfect"? 

"Preterite" means past tense, ¿verdad?

Gracias

I've read the answers below, but there are still instances where I'm confused. For example, the test answers say that "Lo están llamando" is the correct translation of "They're calling him." However, I think I saw "They're writing him" translated as "Le están escribiendo." Both take the preposition "a" when the person being called or written is named, and both can use the preposition "to" in English. How is it possible to know that llamar takes a direct object, while escribir takes an indirect object? 

I have seen llevarse and tomarse used more frequently than tardarse and demorarse.  Is this the more common colloquial way of saying "to take time", or is this perhaps a regional difference? For example --

Me llevó un poco más de tiempo que de costumbre dormirme.

Me tomé un tiempo para pensarlo.

Le llevó mucho tiempo para elegir un sombrero.

Nos llevó media hora montar la tienda.

a ti TE gusta, NO? 

Just a terminology question, but why is this called "El Pretérito Perfecto Subjuntivo" instead of "El Presente Perfecto Subjuntivo"? I thought pretérito meant past tense? (It seems to mean past tense in the context of Pretérito Indefinido and Pretérito Imperfecto.) 

Why can that not translate as "I like to dance" or must the "literal" option of "dancing is liked by me" then become "I like dancing".

In the introduction to this lesson, you say the meaning is similar to using "haber plus infinitive". I think you mean haber plus past participle i.e. the perfect tense