Spanish language Q&A Forum

The first person plural of present tense "to work" is nosotros trabajamos. The simple past is also nosotros trabajamos. Is the difference in translation based on context?  I may be overthinking this, but say it's noon and my mom asks me "how are you guys doing?" "Como estan?" and I reply "nosotros trabajamos."  Am I saying "we work (later) today" or "we worked (this morning)"?  I guess I'm supposed to follow this up with "esta manana" or "despues" to avoid confusion?

With the correct answer being:

She might know the truth

In another lesson the future simple also implies ´maybe/chance of´, right?

You say that Felipe was succeeded as king of Spain by his son Carlos. That is incorrect. Carlos was mentally unstable and conspired against his father by supporting the protestants in the Netherlands. He was imprisoned in 1568 and died the following year. Felipe was succeeded by his second son Felipe 111

First, my dictionary has ser/estar(Spain) viudo, but I think it's even more complicated than a dialect issue. Here's a relevant discussion: https://forum.wordreference.com/threads/to-be-a-widow.596749/

Note that the discussion extends to several other relationship-like words such as soltero (but like viudo, these words are to my mind not relationship words, but rather civil/personal status words, which is why I think ser is often correct with them).

How come for certain reflexive verbs we use le instead of se? For example Él le gusta la chaqueta. The jacket is pleasing to him. 

Sometimes, when Spanish words sound similar to English words, my brain automatically connects them to English words. In this case, my brain associates varios/varias with the English word 'various'. Is this a correct assumption?

In English, various provides more clarity than the word 'some' in that it denotes small differences among the various objects that are being described. Is that the case for Spanish too?