Spanish language Q&A Forum

      "I am going to answer all the questions"

be translated as 
     "Voy a responder todas las respuestas"

Is there a subtle difference between todas las x and cada x that I am missing?

If estar is to be used with a location, why use ser to discuss where one is from?

I have seen llevarse and tomarse used more frequently than tardarse and demorarse.  Is this the more common colloquial way of saying "to take time", or is this perhaps a regional difference? For example --

Me llevó un poco más de tiempo que de costumbre dormirme.

Me tomé un tiempo para pensarlo.

Le llevó mucho tiempo para elegir un sombrero.

Nos llevó media hora montar la tienda.

The lesson says: "We use the construction no + verbo + ningún (a, os, as) to say any." When do you use ningún vs nada for "not any"?

In the last sentence  "Fueron unos días muy felices."

Isn't "fueron" the third person plural (preterite) of "ir"?  It should be followed by "a"

It seems to me that it should be "fueran" instead of "fueron"

I have read through the explanations and have tested, but I really can't not differentiate the type of sentence between the two uses or concepts. Is there any other way to explain this, or some cue that might help me?

Thanks!

Aren't both masculin and feminin acceptable? Tnx

Nice topic, especially in these times when we are locked up inside. And thanks, I'm learning more about the subjunctive everyday!

But now then, this is a long sentence...!

Antes de haber tenido la moto, nunca me hubiese atrevido a viajar solo y ahora lo que más me gusta es coger la moto, mi mochila y viajar sin rumbo por las montañas, pararme y quedarme pasmado mirando el paisaje, y dormir al raso viendo las estrellas.

... which would likely be broken into two (or even three) sentences in English. This is not a criticism. I've found sentences of this length are not at all unusual in Spanish. 

I'm a writer (in English) and having read quite a lot of Spanish in newspapers and in novels, I'm often surprised how long Spanish sentences can be compared to their English counterparts. Funnily enough, when Spanish people correct my Spanish writing they often join up my sentences by replacing the full stops with commas! I also find the Spanish very reluctant to start sentences with 'Pero', preferring instead to have it introduce a phrase, usually only after a comma. By contrast, in English, shorter sentences and 'But' and 'And' with a capital are becoming ever more common in contemporary writing (even though we used to be taught in school never to do it). 

It's interesting the small things we start to notice as we study more and get more familiar with our target language. 

Saludos a todos

I encountered the following question during an exercise at A1 level:

"Yo ______ mis manos en el agua. (I plunge my hands in the water.)"

It is my understanding that mi/mis should not be used with body parts or clothing. Could you please advise?

Thanks

I've read the answers below, but there are still instances where I'm confused. For example, the test answers say that "Lo están llamando" is the correct translation of "They're calling him." However, I think I saw "They're writing him" translated as "Le están escribiendo." Both take the preposition "a" when the person being called or written is named, and both can use the preposition "to" in English. How is it possible to know that llamar takes a direct object, while escribir takes an indirect object?