Are we supposed to believe that an adult native speaker wrote this?Hi there.
I (a native Spanish speaker) heve been
reading texts from the French version of this site for a couple weeks,
and after learning that there is a version that teaches Spanish I've
come to take a look out of curiosity.
And wow. After
reading this text I'm quite sure I'm going to stop using this site to
learn French, just in case the quality of the French texts is anything like that of this supposedly C1 Spanish text. That "habré" in the
first sentence should be "tendré", most commas are misplaced and the
connectors... I mean, I guess they sound correct if you have just read
their meaning in a dictionary and have never heard anyone use them, but
to a native they sound like Google Translate, or worse. The verb tenses
used are also wrong. Technically ok if you've just read the relevant
chapter in a grammar book, but an absolute pain for any native ears.
If
a native speaker wrote this as a highschool composition their teacher
would spend a whole red pen trying to correct it, and they might sent
the author to the hospital just in case they have just had a concussion.
Later edit: sorry If I come up a little cranky and dismissive. I just feel like a fool after realizing that the quality of the texts I've been using for French reading practice is probably very low.
Por favor, how do I get and upside down question mark on on my keyboard? I lost half a mark because I could not do this. Sorry for the inconvenience. Brenda True
An example given in the lesson Dejar vs Dejarse suggests the following:
Dejad que os explique mis planes = Let me explain my plans to you
Firstly, I guess subjunctive is being used here because it adds an extra level of politeness to this request?
However, if I was asked to translate this from English to Spanish I would probably use the indicative: Déjame explicarte mis planes.
So, is my translation wrong? Or is it, let's say, simply less refined? If so, would my translation be quite acceptable if I was talking to a close friend for instance?
Saludos
You say that Felipe was succeeded as king of Spain by his son Carlos. That is incorrect. Carlos was mentally unstable and conspired against his father by supporting the protestants in the Netherlands. He was imprisoned in 1568 and died the following year. Felipe was succeeded by his second son Felipe 111
Why is the answer documental not documentario?
Is it de la mañana, en la mañana or por la mañana? Are they interchangeable? It's always a guess for me.
Where does “eso” fit in, and could it be used in the example below? If so, how would they be different?
I think I always use “eso” in these cases; never esto. Wondering if I’ve always been wrong.
“ Esto no es lo que yo dije.
This is not what I said.”Hi there.
I (a native Spanish speaker) heve been reading texts from the French version of this site for a couple weeks, and after learning that there is a version that teaches Spanish I've come to take a look out of curiosity.
And wow. After reading this text I'm quite sure I'm going to stop using this site to learn French, just in case the quality of the French texts is anything like that of this supposedly C1 Spanish text. That "habré" in the first sentence should be "tendré", most commas are misplaced and the connectors... I mean, I guess they sound correct if you have just read their meaning in a dictionary and have never heard anyone use them, but to a native they sound like Google Translate, or worse. The verb tenses used are also wrong. Technically ok if you've just read the relevant chapter in a grammar book, but an absolute pain for any native ears.
If a native speaker wrote this as a highschool composition their teacher would spend a whole red pen trying to correct it, and they might sent the author to the hospital just in case they have just had a concussion.
Later edit: sorry If I come up a little cranky and dismissive. I just feel like a fool after realizing that the quality of the texts I've been using for French reading practice is probably very low.
Why does the accent change from comprárselos to cómpreselos depending on the conjugation? Does the stressed syllable always change in the imperative form?
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