Are we supposed to believe that an adult native speaker wrote this?Hi there.
I (a native Spanish speaker) heve been
reading texts from the French version of this site for a couple weeks,
and after learning that there is a version that teaches Spanish I've
come to take a look out of curiosity.
And wow. After
reading this text I'm quite sure I'm going to stop using this site to
learn French, just in case the quality of the French texts is anything like that of this supposedly C1 Spanish text. That "habré" in the
first sentence should be "tendré", most commas are misplaced and the
connectors... I mean, I guess they sound correct if you have just read
their meaning in a dictionary and have never heard anyone use them, but
to a native they sound like Google Translate, or worse. The verb tenses
used are also wrong. Technically ok if you've just read the relevant
chapter in a grammar book, but an absolute pain for any native ears.
If
a native speaker wrote this as a highschool composition their teacher
would spend a whole red pen trying to correct it, and they might sent
the author to the hospital just in case they have just had a concussion.
Later edit: sorry If I come up a little cranky and dismissive. I just feel like a fool after realizing that the quality of the texts I've been using for French reading practice is probably very low.
In an example above you say, "Ellos estan delgados". I thought SER was used to describe physical characteristics i.e. "El es alto." To say Ellos estan delgados would imply they are thin now but they didn't used to be thin. Or that they appear thin. Or am I wrong?
Not a huge deal, but I learned monte = hill and montaña = mountain and not the other way around. Maybe I'm wrong.
I thought the answer were plural, muchas for feminine. However, the answer is mucho. May I know what is the reason.
Can "Hemos quedado" mean "we have arranged to meet" AND /OR "we met"?
Might it also be understood as "We stayed"? I know quedarse should be used for staying somewhere.
How do I know when to shorten "cientos" to "cien"? Is is only when I am saying "100 things (cien cosas)" but I say "cientos" if there are more (ciento y uno cosas)?
I do find this confusing even though I understand the grammatical logic behind it. But my (temporary) solution is to get away from thinking in English and adopt the Spanish viewpoint. So I think “I please you” (te gusto); “you please me” (me gustas); “he pleases them” (les gusta) etc. , rather than "you fancy me"......
I believe it’s better as a general principle to try to think in the target language, rather than translate from your own language into the target language.
Hope this helps.
Hi there.
I (a native Spanish speaker) heve been reading texts from the French version of this site for a couple weeks, and after learning that there is a version that teaches Spanish I've come to take a look out of curiosity.
And wow. After reading this text I'm quite sure I'm going to stop using this site to learn French, just in case the quality of the French texts is anything like that of this supposedly C1 Spanish text. That "habré" in the first sentence should be "tendré", most commas are misplaced and the connectors... I mean, I guess they sound correct if you have just read their meaning in a dictionary and have never heard anyone use them, but to a native they sound like Google Translate, or worse. The verb tenses used are also wrong. Technically ok if you've just read the relevant chapter in a grammar book, but an absolute pain for any native ears.
If a native speaker wrote this as a highschool composition their teacher would spend a whole red pen trying to correct it, and they might sent the author to the hospital just in case they have just had a concussion.
Later edit: sorry If I come up a little cranky and dismissive. I just feel like a fool after realizing that the quality of the texts I've been using for French reading practice is probably very low.
I encountered the following question during an exercise at A1 level:
"Yo ______ mis manos en el agua. (I plunge my hands in the water.)"
It is my understanding that mi/mis should not be used with body parts or clothing. Could you please advise?
Thanks
This is taken from a rather unpleasant context. But I still want to know what the grammar behind it is. Why does this have se at the end? Would ¡Exprópie! work the same way?
As always, thank you!
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