Spanish language Q&A Forum

If estar is to be used with a location, why use ser to discuss where one is from?

Is it de la mañana, en la mañana or por la mañana? Are they interchangeable? It's always a guess for me.

I have read through the explanations and have tested, but I really can't not differentiate the type of sentence between the two uses or concepts. Is there any other way to explain this, or some cue that might help me?

Thanks!

It might be worth mentioning that "Es lógico que" tends to require a subjunctive [or always does?] - because intuitively one might regard it as a certainty; i.e., we do need to learn and remember this.

The lesson says: "We use the construction no + verbo + ningún (a, os, as) to say any." When do you use ningún vs nada for "not any"?

Hola Inma, - hopefully you will be seeing this or it can be forwarded to you :)  

I was glad to hear your voice.  Hope you and yours are well and the team are all well. 

1) I was interested in finding out why the author chose to use the verb "estar" instead of "ser" for

"It's delicious" regarding "harira" It seems to me this would always be "delicious"!  

(1-1: I wish I could copy/paste here, but for some reason can't.  Is there a way I could do that?

Also I like to keep track of my lessons and errors and notes etc.)

Gracias,

Nicole

The test asked to translate "I like white wine" to Spanish, but indicated "Me gusta el vino blanco" was the correct answer. The English sentence seemed unspecific to me, as though the speaker was making a general statement about a category of wine they liked. To add an article seems to imply the speaker likes a specific kind of wine ("I like the white wine"). Is this the same implication in Spanish? Could one say "me gusta vino blanco"? Or is an article always required, and unspecific preferences would require "un/una"?

Thank you.