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5,771 questions • 9,332 answers • 922,170 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,771 questions • 9,332 answers • 922,170 learners
It might be worth mentioning that "Es lógico que" tends to require a subjunctive [or always does?] - because intuitively one might regard it as a certainty; i.e., we do need to learn and remember this.
The first person plural of present tense "to work" is nosotros trabajamos. The simple past is also nosotros trabajamos. Is the difference in translation based on context? I may be overthinking this, but say it's noon and my mom asks me "how are you guys doing?" "Como estan?" and I reply "nosotros trabajamos." Am I saying "we work (later) today" or "we worked (this morning)"? I guess I'm supposed to follow this up with "esta manana" or "despues" to avoid confusion?
"Mi padre no es ________ maestro".
The question is "my father is not THEIR teacher" - so why is the answer "su", why not "sus" when it is their not his/her?
My question is really a b1/b2 question, but I can't find where to put it.
if one doesn't know if something exists, isn't "haya" (subjunctive) more correct?
eg ¿Haya un piscina cerca de aquí?
Hola,
This lesson is clear in distinguishing the Futuro Próximo, but is there a reason why none of the translations offered use the variation "I am going to buy a house.... / They are going to have a meal tonight.... etc.?
These would be common ways of expressing future arrangements in English, and happily distinguish it very clearly from the present progressive "I am buying a house" which doesn't quite capture the idea of a future arrangement.
Is there some distinction that I'm not aware of?
Saludos. John
“no se puede concentrar”, why se puede and not puede?
Thanks,
Shirley
Hi, can I say una bolsa is a handbag as well as un bolso?
The lesson explanation says: Antes de que and Antes que are always followed by the subjunctive.
But several ‘antes de” sample sentences aren’t in subjunctive:
Antes de empezar a bailar, había bebido mucho.Antes de haber empezado a bailar, había bebido muchoSo “antes de” isn’t just a shortening of “antes de que” but follows different rules?
Please explain. Thank you.
Can we use parar synonymously as dejar or are these terms used in different contexts?
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