Spanish language Q&A Forum

I’ve been getting the quantifiers mixed up with how to remember they do agree with the gender and plural when it’s applied. 

Especially for demasiado and poco. When is it that it does match the thing it’s describing; and when does it not? 

Kind regards, 

Fran 

Hola,

I took the full-in-the-blanks quiz "Asando Castañas" today and one of the blanks, where I should choose between El Subjunctivo Presente and El Indicativo Presente, was the following:

muchas personas se suman a ella con tal de pasar un buen rato,hasta que ______ (llega/llegue) el amanecer.

Apparently the correct answer was El Indicativo (llega not llegue), but I don't understand why. Isn't sunrise a future event that is yet to happen and therefore the sentence requires El Subjunctivo?

Thanks as always!

Deborah

What is the rule regarding seasons of the year. When do we use the definite article el and when not. En el invierno/en invierno.

Thank you

I understand your explanations perfectly, but I was surprised to learn that it was correct to use "mitad" and "medio" interchangeably when discussing physical space.

It seems to me that way back when I was first learning those concepts, I was told that medio meant middle and and mitad meant half, and that it was an error to confuse the two. Is this a case of one of those "errors so common among native speakers that now it's not wrong anymore" ? Or was I taught incorrectly to begin with?

Thanks for the insight!

My question is really a b1/b2 question, but I can't find where to put it.

if one doesn't know if something exists, isn't "haya" (subjunctive) more correct?

eg  ¿Haya un piscina cerca de aquí? 

Let us imagine the following scenario. There is a crowd of people at a cinema. what would the ticket controller use to invite those who had bought tickets in advance. haya or han comprado/reservado?

It might be worth mentioning that "Es lógico que" tends to require a subjunctive [or always does?] - because intuitively one might regard it as a certainty; i.e., we do need to learn and remember this.

The lesson explanation says: Antes de que and Antes que are always followed by the subjunctive.

But several ‘antes de” sample sentences aren’t in subjunctive: 

So “antes de” isn’t just a shortening of “antes de que” but follows different rules? 

Please explain. Thank you.