llamar with indirect or direct objectsi read from one of the question asked before in one of the grammar lesson, and it is confirmed that llamar is a transitive verb and takes direct object but comes with a preposition A because it is personal a. llamar + a + alguien.
But then i also came across llamar a la puerta for example. why is there a preposition A?
or did i get it wrong that it is not personal A but a fixed expression with llamar + a + any direct objects?
voy a llamar a Juan = voy a llamarlo, voy a llamar a la puerta = voy a llamarla.
But i did come across sentences that do not use preposition a for llamar.
le llamo idiota a juan - i called juan idiot. is this correct?
Other than calling people directly like telephoning or shouting for them, we can also call them names. is this where there wont be preposition A?
sorry for my errors as i am still not familiar with using the llamar verb.
It says in the lesson that you can use "mientras" or "mientras que" with the subjunctive to mean "as long as" or "provided that". Is there any difference between these two forms?
This was the question in the test that led me to this lesson, but the lesson doesn't address the issue of choosing the correct past tense.
Ustedes ________ separados el año pasado.You were separated last year.
The hint tells you to use the tense for estaban, but I don't understand why since this seems to be talking about a definitive time that something happened. Either the action of separating happened last year or the circumstance of being separated happened last year. Can someone explain why we should choose estaban over estuvieron (ustedes) besides the fact that the "hint" tells us to?
Thanks in advance for any help!
Since the question asked for a formal question as I would be addressing an elderly man, I would only use company esta? I would not use question tal? That is a very informal way of asking and means more ‘how’s everything?’
I understand your explanations perfectly, but I was surprised to learn that it was correct to use "mitad" and "medio" interchangeably when discussing physical space.
It seems to me that way back when I was first learning those concepts, I was told that medio meant middle and and mitad meant half, and that it was an error to confuse the two. Is this a case of one of those "errors so common among native speakers that now it's not wrong anymore" ? Or was I taught incorrectly to begin with?
Thanks for the insight!
In Question 6 of the quiz, 'podamos' is used in the sentence. Shouldn't this be 'podemos' or is it used in the subjunctive tense?
Thank you.
Not a huge deal, but I learned monte = hill and montaña = mountain and not the other way around. Maybe I'm wrong.
i read from one of the question asked before in one of the grammar lesson, and it is confirmed that llamar is a transitive verb and takes direct object but comes with a preposition A because it is personal a. llamar + a + alguien.
But then i also came across llamar a la puerta for example. why is there a preposition A?
or did i get it wrong that it is not personal A but a fixed expression with llamar + a + any direct objects?
voy a llamar a Juan = voy a llamarlo, voy a llamar a la puerta = voy a llamarla.
But i did come across sentences that do not use preposition a for llamar.
le llamo idiota a juan - i called juan idiot. is this correct?
Other than calling people directly like telephoning or shouting for them, we can also call them names. is this where there wont be preposition A?
sorry for my errors as i am still not familiar with using the llamar verb.
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