Using dejar to mean borrow/lend (Spain v Latin America)I'm quite confused regarding 'borrow' and 'lend' in Spanish.
I wonder if it's because I've been learning Spanish from a Latin American source and have learned various ways to say 'to borrow' and 'to lend' using such things as 'prestar', 'pedir prestado' and 'tomar prestado'. Grammatically I understand how these phrases work, but they only seem to imply borrow/lend, and I've never been entirely comfortable using any of them!
I.O.P + dejar as used in Spain is quite new to me... and it actually makes sense straight away!
So, I'm interested to know if 'prestar' is used at all in Spain, and if so, how?
BTW, as there seems to be no exact equivalent to borrow and lend between English and Spanish many people get confused by it. A separate lesson on the subject would be a great addition to the Kwiziq library imo ;)
Saludos
Hi
For this phrase;
Se necesitan médicos con experiencia en ese hospital.
My instinct would be to translate it as necesitan - the same as English 'they need - but I normally look at Spanish nouns like Hospital & Gente as singular - so I might say "se necesita médicos". What is up with my logic here? Ta
I've just realised that this lesson needs more detail to cover ser and estar.
When talking about something earlier in the day, generally, something that uses estar will use imperfecto, not perfecto nor indefinido, breaking the rule completely! Whereas ser will follow the rule.
So if we ate something delicious this morning we'd say, "!Estaba rico!" not "he sido rico" nor "estuvo rico".
Estar by its nature expresses more transient states of being than ser and the imperfect tense matches this (at least, that's how it feels to me but as I'm not a native Spaniard, I look forward to hearing Kwiziq's native experts' views to expand or correct this for me!)
I'm quite confused regarding 'borrow' and 'lend' in Spanish.
I wonder if it's because I've been learning Spanish from a Latin American source and have learned various ways to say 'to borrow' and 'to lend' using such things as 'prestar', 'pedir prestado' and 'tomar prestado'. Grammatically I understand how these phrases work, but they only seem to imply borrow/lend, and I've never been entirely comfortable using any of them!
I.O.P + dejar as used in Spain is quite new to me... and it actually makes sense straight away!
So, I'm interested to know if 'prestar' is used at all in Spain, and if so, how?
BTW, as there seems to be no exact equivalent to borrow and lend between English and Spanish many people get confused by it. A separate lesson on the subject would be a great addition to the Kwiziq library imo ;)
Saludos
What is the difference between un, uno and algún, alguno?
Just a comment. I think this subject is difficult without making the English incorrect. It becomes much more understandable when the translation is made using correct English. Some examples:
¿A quién le enviaste la carta?
Who did you send the letter to?
The English should be: To whom did you send the letter?
¿Para quién has comprado esas flores tan bonitas?
Who have you bought such pretty flowers for?
The English should be: For whom have you bought such pretty flowers?
¿Con quiénes vais de vacaciones?
Who are you going on holiday with?
The English should be: With whom are you going on holiday?
¿Por quién harías una locura?
Who would you do something crazy for?
The English should be: For whom would you do something crazy?
This does not include all the examples, but it is enough to see the problem.
I think I remember from my high school days that saber has a different meaning than "to know" in one of its tenses, I think one of the past tenses has a different meaning when translated to English but I'm not sure. It might have been for a negative construction of saber, to mean I don't remember rather than I don't know. I haven't come across any grammar rules that mention this since high school, but I would appreciate it if someone could help me out with this. Thanks
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