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Let me take a look at that...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,891 questions • 9,636 answers • 967,512 learners
Hola todos
I have been told that it is very common to use 'quedar' instead of 'estar' to indicate where a place is, for instance 'Mi casa queda cerca del parque.'
I have read quedar used in this way, and have seen it in some dictionaries. However, I don't think I've ever heard anyone say it to me, which is odd as I must have used sentences where it might come up hundreds of times on the many occasions I've been navigating neighbourhoods during visits to Spain. Could it be more common in Latin American Spanish?
Can you clarify?
Saludos
I am having a lot of trouble knowing which one of these to use. The explanations I have found don't make sense to me. For instance "haber estado" refers to something in the past that expresses movement. Then why, when I receive something from Amazon Mexico, does it say "Tu paquete ha sido entregado". ? Very confused about this and I can't find any coherent answers.
could you, please, explain why " mi corazón me iba a explotar/estalar" is not valid? I' ve always had a problem with this kind of expression.
Saludos
Ελισάβετ
Hello,
RE: Kwizbot puesto que era mi cumpleaños You puesto que fue mi cumpleaños
I was wondering why the imperfect was used here and not the preterit since the birthday was yesterday, which is a definite period in time and is now complete.
Thank you.
Nicoel
Kwiziq: ...las piezas cerámicas de colores.
Me: ...las piezas de cerámica coloreada.
Can you explain the difference please?
Saludos
My answer was "está"The correct answer was "hace"
In the above question, I think both answers should be considered correct:está (in this case frío is an adjective)and hace (in this case frío would be a noun)
Why am I wrong?
"La" is only used as the feminine for a direct object, correct? So in this example from the lesson the first "her" (se) is the indirect object of "dar" but the the second "her" is a direct object of "ver"?
Se lo daré cuando la vea.
I will give it to her when I see her.
If the second "her" were an indirect object, it would be "le", right? For example, is this correct?
Se lo daré cuando le hable.
I will give it to her when I talk to her.
Thank you!
In your example of the
El Imperfecto de Subjuntivo
You're using the verb haber ie
Hubiera hubiese etc
So what's the preterito pluscuamperfecto de subjuntivo?
I thought that was
hubiera hubiese
I thought el imperfecto de subjuntivo was the past subjuntivo ie
Tuviera
Fuera
Pusiera
Etc
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