Aunque +subjunctive vs indicativeCould someone attempt to clear something up for me?
In a quiz question on this subject we are asked to choose subjunctive vs indicative as follows:
"Aunque no ______ (tiene/tenga) mucho éxito en general, la película me parece interesante" (Although it is not very successful in general, the movie seems interesting to me)
The hint given is that there is no doubt in the speaker's mind regarding the aunque clause.
The answer is tenga (subjunctive)
In English, even if and although have quite different connotations: even if can indicate an element of doubt, but although generally does not, so I can usually work out how one or the other determines either indicative or subjunctive in Spanish translation. But I don't understand how this phrase triggers the subjunctive in this question.
Firstly, from the hint given, the phrase doesn't necessarily imply that this is shared information (that the accompanying lesson suggests would trigger the subjunctive). This info might be known only to the speaker, so shouldn't that would point to the indicative? Secondly, if there's no doubt in the speaker's mind, why consider using subjunctive at all?
When translating to a passive sentence, why is it "se come paella" and not "se comen paella", when people is a plural noun?
Could someone attempt to clear something up for me?
In a quiz question on this subject we are asked to choose subjunctive vs indicative as follows:
"Aunque no ______ (tiene/tenga) mucho éxito en general, la película me parece interesante" (Although it is not very successful in general, the movie seems interesting to me)
The hint given is that there is no doubt in the speaker's mind regarding the aunque clause.
The answer is tenga (subjunctive)
In English, even if and although have quite different connotations: even if can indicate an element of doubt, but although generally does not, so I can usually work out how one or the other determines either indicative or subjunctive in Spanish translation. But I don't understand how this phrase triggers the subjunctive in this question.
Firstly, from the hint given, the phrase doesn't necessarily imply that this is shared information (that the accompanying lesson suggests would trigger the subjunctive). This info might be known only to the speaker, so shouldn't that would point to the indicative? Secondly, if there's no doubt in the speaker's mind, why consider using subjunctive at all?
In the sentence: my girlfriend says that you will be worth it. Why would you use valdrás, instead of valdrá la pena? You are not valuing it, you are just worth it.
Can they be used synonymously? What is the difference in meaning and use between the two?
For example,
Tengo que ir al colegio.
Instead of using "voy", ir was used. Why is that?
Thanks.
There was a question in the test where the correct answer was:
´Las islas canarias SON en el oceáno atlántio´
Why is it ´SON´ and not ´ESTÁN´?
¿Qué es la diferencia entre las palabras rincón y esquina?
¡Hola a todos!
Thank you for this helpful exercise! :-)
I'm curios how to translate "No, es broma"? I mean, google tells me it means; "I'm kidding", and I understand that from the context - but is there maybe a comparison to an English equivalent of this expression? :-)
¡Muchas gracias!
What is the difference between Tengo catarro and tengo resfriado pls?
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