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Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,080 questions • 9,957 answers • 1,037,920 learners
As someone else pointed out this is a bad translation of English. In English it would be said that, "It's a good thing I left Miguel!" I don't buy the British translation that was proposed as I have literally never heard that.
Hola todos
I have been told that it is very common to use 'quedar' instead of 'estar' to indicate where a place is, for instance 'Mi casa queda cerca del parque.'
I have read quedar used in this way, and have seen it in some dictionaries. However, I don't think I've ever heard anyone say it to me, which is odd as I must have used sentences where it might come up hundreds of times on the many occasions I've been navigating neighbourhoods during visits to Spain. Could it be more common in Latin American Spanish?
Can you clarify?
Saludos
Just a terminology question, but why is this called "El Pretérito Perfecto Subjuntivo" instead of "El Presente Perfecto Subjuntivo"? I thought pretérito meant past tense? (It seems to mean past tense in the context of Pretérito Indefinido and Pretérito Imperfecto.)
Nosotros estamos arriba. (We are arrived) . The answer is estamos instead somos. I thought estamos only use in place. Can you please give an example.
I saw a sentence "Nos pasamos El día" it means we spent the day, but "Pasamos el día" means the same thing as well. I always get confused what's the reason behind using "NOS" in the first sentence.
Why is it ‘hacer la lumbre en la cocina', then later ‘hacer el fuego'? Is it because, the second time, we are more focused on actually getting a fire going, and the first time we're thinking about the type of fire?
Can we get a lesson on when to use which word? They seem to all be very similar in describing how long something takes.
Hola, no entiendo estas frases:
1) justo de lo que se trata,
2) es de ver que todos somos distintos
Entiendo la idea de la paradoja--que la igualdad es importante pero, al mismo tiempo, somos individuales--pero no puedo traducir las frases.
Una suposición:
1) in fairness to what we are dealing with
2) one must see that
From the above lesson it is not fully clear when one would use "no solo...sino" and when one would use "no solo...sino que". Is the rule similar to the one mentioned in this lesson: Difference between pero, sino and sino que in Spanish (but) whereby "If we need a different conjugated verb in the second clause after sino, then we need to add "que" after sino."?
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