Spanish language Q&A Forum

can we say ha venido a quedarse instead of using para?

Buenos Dias,

Please, help to understand, once for all, these "nasty" Direct and Indirect Object Pronouns:

Ex: Laura se lo compro = Laura bought it for her. Can also be Laura bought it for  him? How can we make the difference? Also, the English sentence can be translated in Spanis like "Laura se la compro?" Thanks for help, Michael Aldea.

Susana no credit que ya __________ (mentir) antes

Hola,

I still struggle with the whole ser and estar rules but I cannot see why ser is used in this sentence. If it means "I am not (by nature) the kind of person who will take risks" then "ser" would fit, but that is not at all obvious from the sentence. The translation offered was "I will not be too daring" [or something like that] which to me suggests that she was adopting a cautious strategy in the game, to avoid being embarrassed. Hence a temporary / changeable state. 

Can you clarify this for me please?

Thanks. John

In the test,  the answer was wrong.    But, grammatically, Yo tengo and tengo should be accepted as correct!

Please can you check why this was marked incorrect!!!

Hola Kwiziq team, 

Quick question; in the example below is unos agreeing with minutos? Or should it be agreeing with pelicula?

La película dura unos ochenta minutos.

Thanks as always. 

Fran

Hi,

I get confused at times with the meaning of items in parentheses,  for example, like in this:

but generally all of them give (us) a sweet [US: some candy].

Kwizbot           pero normalmente todos dan un dulce. 
You                  pero normalmente nos dan unas dulces.

What meant by the different parentheses? (us) a sweet [US: some candy].  And how are they to be interpreted?

Thank you. Nicole

Hola,

If habría is the only usage here, in what context would the other conjugated parts of the verb be used?

Gracias,