Re: Se la había comprado.
How can one tell when reading or hearing this sentence, - if it was a standalone sentence - that the “se” means the plural “les” .
For example if this sentence is entered in Reverso: “Se la abía comprado.” they translate it as “ I had bought it for "him”. So there’s no way to know from the sentence that it was bought for “plural someones”.
Would this conundrum ever happen in real life, i.e. in converstion or writing, or would it always be clear from the preceding sentence?
Thank you for your patience,