Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola,

I have just completed a test with the above sentence to be completed with an adverb.

I do not have a problem with the adverb but with this part of the sentence:

... no nos quedan más ...

Can you please explain how the above equals 'we have no more' in English?  I wonder why it is quedan and not quedamos.

Many thanks for you help.

Saludos,

Colin

I had to use process of elimination to get the right answer - I couldn't see anywhere it references positively that you sometimes have to change the verb ending to que to go from se acerca to acérquese?

Do you have something to help with that?

Thank you!

How do I enter an inverted question mark at the beginning of the question?

Thank you David and Inma for your replies.

But, is the sentence not really: (Nosostros) érasmos nosotros los que ...?

And 'los que' would mean 'ones who'?

Saludos,

Colin

Hi,

I was wondering if there is a reason the "c" turns in a "j",  It seems to me that

conduce would sound fine in front of "e" and "i" (perhaps just a change in front of the "a" and "o".

Do you know of any reason for the change?

Thank you.

In the lesson "Use Hace + length of time + que + El Indefinido "  we have this example:

-¿Dónde está Jaime? -Hace dos horas que se fue.
-Where is Jaime? -He left two hours ago.

In the lesson "When to use the perfect tense versus the simple past in European Spanish (Perfecto vs Indefinido)" we have this example:

Note: If you talk about time ago using hace then the tense will still depend on whether the event in question was 'today' or another day:

Lo he visto hace 2 minutos.
I saw him two minutes ago.

Are they both correct?  It they are, that tells me that when using "Hace + length of time + que + El Indefinido", we could either of these?

Jim Kurczewski