Spanish language Q&A Forum

I was recently given this sentence: 

Eugenia (entender)  ______ que no podamos ir.

I got it correct and know the form of "entender" to be used, but I have a side question: Why is "podamos" in the subjunctive here? Why not the indicative?

In the example, "You have already slept enough for today," what is the reason for using 'lo' here: "Ustedes ya han dormido lo suficiente por hoy."

Hi,

In the above sentence estaba has been translated as 'I' but could it equally be 'he' or 'she'?

If so, how could one make it explicit?

Thanks.

Colin

In the quiz I just did, the question was: “¡Qué ________ tiene ese hombre!” and the answer was manazas.  Is there a reason that Mano with an “o” ending becomes Manazas and not Manazos?  Is it simply because Mano is feminine even though it ends with an “o”?

Hola, 

Could we say something like ‘qué menos poco’, etc, to emphasise to an even greater extent the very little of the action/ verb that is going on?

Gracias,