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5,821 questions • 9,537 answers • 954,155 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,821 questions • 9,537 answers • 954,155 learners
In the first example above viz. A el no imporatba lo que hubiera dicho
it reads as if I really had said something and if so, why not indicative?
The sentence 'Voy a aprovechar este trozo de tela para hacerme una falda', is repeated from an above example block, and doesn't match the intent of 'Sometimes we can use "aprovechar" with the same meaning as above but with no direct object.'
Maybe the example sentence at the bottom of the lesson was meant to be included: 'Al cancelarse la clase de español, los estudiantes aprovecharon para irse a tomar una cerveza juntos.', as it isn't shown elsewhere.
Every example in the lesson includes "Have, Has or 've + past participle) To say "You put in there already is very American. England would rarely if ever miss the 've as in "You've put it in ther already. " which would be more natural English for an Englander.
ves el mapa costa rica
What about "llegar a ser", a common way of saying become in some contexts?
Also, what about when become, unlike in all the examples above, is not to do with people? E.g. The weather is becoming cold. The situation became very serious. I think these can be more difficult to resolve than the ones about people.
What about reflexive verbs as ways of saying become, e.g. enfadarse (to become angry)?
La palabra tablao ne es espanola, ¿no.? Me parece que sea portuguesa.
The word "ambiente" was new to me. I'm surprised that for a beginner lesson/practice that a "hint" wouldn't have been given for this word which I wouldn't consider a part of basic vocabulary for beginners.
why is this not accepted as correct when A mí me molesta.... is?
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