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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,083 questions • 9,962 answers • 1,039,794 learners
Sometimes the answers require the feminine 'a' but there isn't any context in the question as to the gender of the subject.
Unless I'm mistaken, which is highly probable :)
cheers
Brian
It looks to me like the helping verb is not in the pretérito perfecto but rather the Present pretérito perfecto. This may seem like a nit picking question but I am confused by the different names I see for the same tense in different sources.
Hola,
I don't understand how 'debido a que' is a wrong answer in the test for this question?
Ella dejó a su marido ________ su mal humor y sus celos.She left her husband because of his bad temper and jealousy.
I guess it's because it's a combination of nouns (humor, celos) without any further embellishment, but it's confused me because of the explanation referring to a noun, rather than nouns plural:
"If we use debido a que, it can never be followed just by a noun, it needs a phrase."
Gracias,
Every example in the lesson includes "Have, Has or 've + past participle) To say "You put in there already is very American. England would rarely if ever miss the 've as in "You've put it in ther already. " which would be more natural English for an Englander.
Qué provocar el subjuntivo en esta frase:
Tendremos que usar cuanto dinero tengamos. Es muy caro.
?
I looked at the comments regarding quería and querría . But I do not see anyone asking abut Quisiera as I translation for "I would like". Would that also be translated in the present.
Also, I thought that when the speaker says what she would like, that part of the sentence would not be subjunctive.Although, I think that when an English speaker says "I would like you to .. . ." as opposed to "I want you to..." the former is softer, I just have a lot of trouble with the subjunctive and to be sure I understand this part of it
In the reading exercise Espiritu Navideño, the woman is described as espíritu mágico de Navidad. How come, the ending is not changed to match the feminine "mujer"?
Hello,
Can anyone please explain the use of ser in these 2 examples? Both are describing temporary states (I think.) They are from a video that has many sentences to translate.. This seems not to accord with the normal use of ser.
1. No sea tonto. (I would tanslate this as "Don't act silly." We are not saying "You are a silly person."}
2. Era obvio que el conductor no había sido lo suficientemente cuidadoso. (I don't think this is a passive construction. Shouln't this be "no había estado"?)
For this lesson I’ve got a bunch of rules bouncing around in my head regarding when to use indicative vs subjective without understanding the “why” behind the rules. Can you provide any guidance on why these rules are the way they are to help me remember them?
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