Spanish language Q&A Forum

I did not see any discussion as to whether you can split the pronouns and put just one on the end of the infinitive/gerund:

Tengo un libro nuevo y me quierolo  leer pronto.

Tengo un libro nuevo y lo quierome  leer pronto.  (pronoun ordering???)

Would either of these forms be acceptable?

Hi Silvia. In the example, "Tal vez yo haya estudiado mucho para el examen," the English translation says, "I might have studied a lot for the exam".  Is that "I might have studied a lot" in the sense "maybe I would have studied a lot [if I had time?"] Or "Perhaps (it possible) I studied a lot for the exam"? Both?

Oh wait, after writing this I realized that the sentence perhaps means, "I should have studied a lot for the exam.” We Americans almost never use the word “might” in this sense. I’m not sure how much you Brits (all British residents) do. Is this the sense in which it is used here?

Hi Kwiziq Team, 

Please may I ask the following questions:

1) 'Soy profesora de español' - I am a Spanish teacher. 

**Why is the answer not 'Soy una profesora de español'  - why is there no need for the 'una' / 'a' in this sentence?

2) 'Está en el centro de la ciudad' - It is in the centre of the city.

**Why would the correct sentence not be  'Está en el centra de la ciudad' - would 'centro' not need to change to 'centra' to work with 'la ciudad' which is feminine?

Or is 'centro' simply a location, not an adjective in this example so doesn't have to change gender?

Apologies if my questions are confusing! Thanks very much for your help! Great website!

Natasha

Is is possible to explain when to use tener alittle more? I found on the internet that we use tener when talking about an abstract noun or direct object. Is that correct? If so then when do I use mide+measurement etc. ? 

What is the difference between these two sentences?

Las fresas habían estado siendo recolectadas.

Las fresas habían estado recolectadas.

If they both mean 'The strawberries had been collected.', under what circumstances are the two sentences used?

Hi - 

Wondering if you could explain when to use le instead of la or lo? I usually think of le as “to him” or “to her” like an indirect object. But I am not sure. Thank you!

I was curious...

En esta frase, "Me recomendó que practicase meditación y que tuviera una actitud positiva."  Es muy común que una persona mezcle ambas formas del imperfecto de subjuntivo dentro de la misma oración? 

Hola

I have a question 

Why it's "las" before dos ...tres..etc

And before una it's "la"

Every example in the lesson includes "Have, Has or 've  +  past participle)   To say "You put in there already is very American.  England would rarely if ever miss the 've as in "You've put it in ther already. "  which would be more natural English for an Englander. 

Thank you!  I also found a very good website for pronunciation, listed by diphthongs, etc at:

https://www.123teachme.com/learn_spanish/diphthongs_and_triphthongs

which might be useful.

Nicole