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5,744 questions • 9,362 answers • 925,818 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,744 questions • 9,362 answers • 925,818 learners
La palabra tablao ne es espanola, ¿no.? Me parece que sea portuguesa.
In the lesson "Use Hace + length of time + que + El Indefinido " we have this example:
-¿Dónde está Jaime? -Hace dos horas que se fue.
-Where is Jaime? -He left two hours ago.
In the lesson "When to use the perfect tense versus the simple past in European Spanish (Perfecto vs Indefinido)" we have this example:
Note: If you talk about time ago using hace then the tense will still depend on whether the event in question was 'today' or another day:
Lo he visto hace 2 minutos.
I saw him two minutes ago.
Are they both correct? It they are, that tells me that when using "Hace + length of time + que + El Indefinido", we could either of these?
Jim Kurczewski
How do I cause my recommended lessons and associated quizzes to increase in difficulty within a specific level, a1, for example? It seems that the quizzes I take and my recommended lessons do not increase in difficulty. I feel like I'm standing still. Even though my brain map gets greener all the time.
Thank you, James
I would really like to know why Progress goes to such lengths to make ideas as confusing as possible. NO ONE in any language that I have ever studied goes to such lengths to "explain" a use that a student is ever likely to hear again.
I looked at the comments regarding quería and querría . But I do not see anyone asking abut Quisiera as I translation for "I would like". Would that also be translated in the present.
Also, I thought that when the speaker says what she would like, that part of the sentence would not be subjunctive.Although, I think that when an English speaker says "I would like you to .. . ." as opposed to "I want you to..." the former is softer, I just have a lot of trouble with the subjunctive and to be sure I understand this part of it
Why doesn't "hache" follow the same rules as words like "agua" where the intial vowel is a stressed a?
ie, Why do we still say "la hache" and not "el hache" ?
I was recently given this sentence:
Eugenia (entender) ______ que no podamos ir.
I got it correct and know the form of "entender" to be used, but I have a side question: Why is "podamos" in the subjunctive here? Why not the indicative?
If I pay for this is there more to this app than I see now without subscription?
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