A question about indirect object pronouns and IO or reflexive pronouns instead of possessive pronouns?Indirect objects/pronouns are clearly necessary in certain cases such as when pegar is used to mean "to hit" someone/something as in "Le pega al hermano" for "He hits his brother." (Golpear takes a direct object as in "Golpeo la pelota y ella la golpea también" as in "I hit the ball and she hits it too.")
However, when given the sentence (in Duolingo):
"Did you see the goalie stopping all of their penalties"
why are the translations:
1) "Viste al portero atajándoles/parándoles/deteniéndoles todos los penales" accepted
while the translations:
2) Viste al portero atajándo/parando/deteniendo todos sus penales aren't accepted?
I know that we use object pronouns in place of possessives with body parts most of the time and sometimes with clothing as in "Me pongo los guantes" for "I put on my gloves" but why #2 supposedly unacceptable (or is it acceptable also)?
Any help would be appreciated as I can find no clear explanation and most translators actually give #2 as the answer.
Hola,
-No me convence su argumento.
-I am not convinced by his story.
Why do we say "me convence" instead of "me convenzo" ? Do convencer verb like gustar ?
I could substitute “which person” here. What clue should I be looking for to tell me I don’t need the accent?
What is the difference between tener que and deber?
Hi, how does Fiesta fit into this lesson? Gracias, shirley.
Indirect objects/pronouns are clearly necessary in certain cases such as when pegar is used to mean "to hit" someone/something as in "Le pega al hermano" for "He hits his brother." (Golpear takes a direct object as in "Golpeo la pelota y ella la golpea también" as in "I hit the ball and she hits it too.")
However, when given the sentence (in Duolingo):
"Did you see the goalie stopping all of their penalties"
why are the translations:
1) "Viste al portero atajándoles/parándoles/deteniéndoles todos los penales" accepted
while the translations:
2) Viste al portero atajándo/parando/deteniendo todos sus penales aren't accepted?
I know that we use object pronouns in place of possessives with body parts most of the time and sometimes with clothing as in "Me pongo los guantes" for "I put on my gloves" but why #2 supposedly unacceptable (or is it acceptable also)?
Any help would be appreciated as I can find no clear explanation and most translators actually give #2 as the answer.
Should be on second syllable, no?
Qué semana te vas de vacaciones?
What week are you going on vacation?
There are 52 weeks in a year.
Apparently, 52 is a large enough universe to use Qué and not Cuál.
If you wanted to say: What day of the week is today?....
would you say Qué dia de semana es hoy? or Cuál dia de semana es hoy?
There are 7 days in a week.
Is 7 a small enough number to use Cuál? or....
Are you asking for a definition of the day and therefore Qué?
Hola,
I never received a reply to my 2nd question below, it starts like this:
"Hello Inma,
Thank you so much for your patience and reply.
I was wondering, is there a way I can find my questions and answers received within my page....."
see below for the full question, thank you.
What are the other words for adios. Like other slangs which are used in other Spanish speaking countries. Like chao. Are there any other words?
I just reviewed the A1 lesson on veces/vez in which "sometimes" equals "algunas veces," but in examples above, "sometimes" equals "a veces." Is there a difference? Is "a veces" simply a more convenient way of saying "algunas veces?" Thank you.
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