Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,046 questions • 9,892 answers • 1,025,074 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,046 questions • 9,892 answers • 1,025,074 learners
Though most of the English translations here use the future tense, as an American English native speaker it sounds stilted to me. I would normally say, for example, "I hope you come out with us tonight", "I hope they're very happy in their marriage.", and "My brother and I hope that you have lots of luck with the job." To me, this form, which is our very subtle subjunctive present tense, is a more natural translation from the Spanish present subjunctive than the English translations in future tense here.
"Algunas compradoras se gastan mucho dinero en las rebajas." means...
Why not "Algunas compradoras gastan mucho dinero..." There is no passive voice here; "Some shoppers" is the subject of this sentence.
This problem arises often in my readings of Spanish, and I would love to understand it. Is this a passive, reflexive, or accidental use of "se"?
English "Has drunk" or "drank"
Can't say "Has drank"
What is the responses for De donde es usted
Would it be safe to assume that "por" is used instead of "para" when it makes sense to say "porque", or "because" in English? This was just a connection I made while reading the lesson, and knowing this would be really helpful! If so, can the two words just be swapped out for one another? Thanks!
Hi. I remember learning that when we almost do something in the past, then we use the present tense, so that ¡casi me desmayé! would be ¡casi me desmayo!
Is this right or wrong or an acceptable alternative in speaking or writing?
Thanks
Stuart
Answer given : Estoy vendiendo . My answer marked wrong was : yo estoy vendiendo. Is that just because I wrote yo and not Yo ? If so that seems rather harsh.
I don't understand me gustan with first person. Is this the formal version?
While experimenting with nunca in negative sentences for a while, my instinct kept telling me to include the definite article in one particular construction, where it would not be required in any of the others.
ie. Never eat sweets before dinner (imperative)
= No comas nunca LOS dulces antes de la cena
Could you clarify for me 1) if the article is actually required here at all, or 2) if it could be used correctly as an option.
HI
I used 'cuando suene la alarma' and was corrected to 'cuando suena la alarma'. I notice that an alternative could be 'cuando suene el despertador' so would my original translation, using the subjunctive with 'la alarma', be ok to use?
Many thanks
Dee
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level