Spanish language Q&A Forum

The suggested translation of 'to go red on the face' sounds odd. In English, we would say 'to go red in the face' or, more colloquially, 'to get red-faced'

Can we get an option to remove hints from the tests?

For example with the following hint: 

HINT: Conjugate “ser” in El Pretérito Imperfecto

There is really no point to the question, because I can easily conjugate the verb if you tell me this...the difficulty is in knowing when to use the imperfect vs the preterite.

I would also like an option to get rid of the multiple choice answers for the one or two word answers. Sometimes you can eliminate three options just based on context without actually understand the grammar that is supposedly being tested.

Right now it is too easy to get the right answer when you don't really know the topic very well.

"Algunas compradoras se gastan mucho dinero en las rebajas." means...

Why not "Algunas compradoras gastan mucho dinero..." There is no passive voice here; "Some shoppers" is the subject of this sentence.

This problem arises often in my readings of Spanish, and I would love to understand it. Is this a passive, reflexive, or accidental use of "se"?

It looks to me like the helping verb is not in the pretérito perfecto but rather the Present pretérito perfecto.  This may seem like a nit picking question but I am confused by the different names I see for the same tense in different sources.

In the sentence 'Les amenecé seriamente' I don't understand why the indirect object pronoun 'Les' is used. I would have thought it would have been a direct object pronoun ie 'Los' or 'Las'. Are 'they' not the direct object of the threatening? I seem to often have a problem with this. It's ok when it's a straightforward 'I gave the present TO her' for example where it is quite clear but in sentences like the one above I get very confused as it often seems the indirect object pronoun is used. Any advice greatly appreciated.

Really enjoyed this!

Gracias por compartir esta canción. Me gusta mucho.

I don't understand the first example:

                         Lo he visto a él primero, y después a ella.

I understand the 'lo' to match the 'a él', but why doesn't the 'a ella' have a corresponding 'la'?

thanks