Spanish language Q&A Forum

Is it common in Spanish to use the first name of a person and the formal form together?

Another common idiom is "no ver la hora (de)"

¡No veo la hora! - I can't wait!

or

No veo la hora de volver a casa. - I can't wait to return home.

When you say that we use  "por culpa de" for something  with a negative result and use the example as given above " por culpa de mi novio soy la mujer más feliz del mundo........" Why do you say that this sentence has a negative result?

The examples for "nueva bici" and "bici nueva" towards the end of the lesson contradict both the earlier examples and the table showing the different meanings for the adjectives depending on placement.

I could substitute “which person” here. What clue should I be looking for to tell me I don’t need the accent?

Please clarify what is meant by each it. 

I assume the first it refers to the reflexive pronoun and the second  it refers to the verb.  BUT ONE CANT BE SURE

If I had answered, "Me estoy muriendo de sed" instead, would it be viewed as correct?