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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,892 questions • 9,639 answers • 968,224 learners
[A comment rather than a question]: All '-erir' verbs [apart from the barely used 'enjerir'] change the e to ie:, e.g. sugerir, referir, preferir, diferir, transferir, requerir and a host of others. A similar rule applies to [all !] '-vertir' verbs: convertir, divertir(se), etc. etc.... On the other hand, all '-etir', '-edir' and '-egir' verbs adopt the e>i change.... With help from a CD which enabled words to be listed in reverse-alphabetical order, I examined the contents of my CLAVE dictionary, and posted the results in http://dlmcn.com/ir_verbs.html (the accents are properly represented in http://DLMcN.com/irverbs.doc ).
When does the o-ending in the 3rd person pretérito indefinido get a tilde (like "oyó) and when doesn't it?
¡Jajaja, la probrecita Lalá!
Si sólo fuera una perrita como Lalá, Qué vida tan fácil, no? :))
Gracias a Shui y Inma.
At the start of the explanation, there is a reference to the future simple which I think should be the conditional.
Conjugate poner in El Condicional SimplePosted by Silvia PirizIn: Level B1, Verbs Tenses & Conjugation, El Condicional SimpleQuestions on this lesson: 0ADD TO NOTEBOOK« Previous 10 OF 10 TEST »Poner (to put) is irregular in El Futuro Simple. It is formed by adding these endings to the stem dir-:
yoThough most of the English translations here use the future tense, as an American English native speaker it sounds stilted to me. I would normally say, for example, "I hope you come out with us tonight", "I hope they're very happy in their marriage.", and "My brother and I hope that you have lots of luck with the job." To me, this form, which is our very subtle subjunctive present tense, is a more natural translation from the Spanish present subjunctive than the English translations in future tense here.
Are Spanish restaurants really rated in tenedores? I would've thought that it would ha derived from Michelin stars. At least, I always assumed stars was the literal translation of whatever the French is.
I know 'para' usually goes in front of verbs in the infinitive form. When does 'por' go in front of verbs in the infinitive form?
Se me ha olvidado la llave. Does the lesson apply to this usage also?
I could substitute “which person” here. What clue should I be looking for to tell me I don’t need the accent?
Esta guerra habrá de acabar con la esperanza de paz de la gente.This war will put an end to people's hope for peace.
No te preocupes por lo que nunca ha de pasar.Don't worry about what will never happen.
Why is this second example not taking "haber" in the future tense also? Or is it just a bad English translation?
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