Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,988 questions • 9,792 answers • 1,005,796 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,988 questions • 9,792 answers • 1,005,796 learners
Your English original is: "the tango is one of the most sensual dances that exists in the world". During the course of the exercise, I felt that "exists" should really be plural, so I put "existen" in my translation answer - and that was accepted as correct. However, your final Spanish version still makes it singular.
The subtlety of this concept is lost on me. Can you explain in more detail the difference between these two sentences, please.
Hacía unos meses que trabajaba con su padre.
He had been working with his dad for a few months.
Trabajaba en la empresa desde hacía tres años.
He had been working in the company for 3 years.
"Yo tomo el café con menos leche"--why is "tomo" shown as "have" in the English translation? It is a very common phrase in English to say "I take my coffee with . . . ," so was there a reason to change it to "here?"
I noticed that nunca goes after nosotros,yo,él/ella, but not estoy. Why is that
I am looking for a clarification on how to say that you know/don't know how to do something. For example, "I know how to dance" is "Sé bailar" or "Sé como bailar"? I feel like it's the first one, and that saying "como" is redundant or just a direct translation from english, but I'm not entirely sure. Is there ever an instance in which you would say "como + infinitive" to say "how to ...."? Or am I totally wrong?
I personally find it helpful to bear in mind that all verbs ending in "-etir" follow the above-mentioned e>i pattern [like competir] - e.g. repetir and derretir.
And - because 'd' is just the voiced form of 't' - some people may like to extend this guide to include all the "-edir" verbs as well; e.g. pedir, impedir, medir.
Thank you so much!
You have this rule:
Mucho + [masculine singular noun] = a lot of / much [masculine singular noun]
Is this rule only valid for uncountable nouns?
All of the examples are uncountable nouns.
Hola,
Is there a lesson which develops this theme, and discusses when the definite article is used with the noun in the body of a sentence - and if there are times when this is not the case?
Thanks. John
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level