Spanish language Q&A Forum

Me gusta esta historia porque soy un granjero!

No entiendo por qué el Rey hizo eso. Él lo hizo porque quiso

Unless the Spanish have a definition of "conjunction" that differs from the one I've always understood, both "por qué" and 
"porque" are both being used as conjunctions in those sentences. It is the sense of their use which differs.

Can these two uses be distinguished in spoken Spanish and if so, how?

Hello, 

I am reading a fairly reputable bilingual version of Sherlock Holmes. On one sentence it says 'Iba vestido discretamente con un traje de mezclilla de lana....'

The translation (and my own reading of the context) suggests that this means 'He was discretely dressed....'

But if that's the case why have they used 'iba'? Is that incorrect? The man was not 'going to do' anything. He just 'was'. My searching online and using Google translate suggests that only estar (or possibly ser) in the past tense are valid here, not ir.

Thanks!