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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,046 questions • 9,893 answers • 1,025,091 learners
Hello, I am not clear why “estaba” is used (imperfecto) but all the other verbs are in the pretérito tense. I have read all the lessons on this subject but still nearly always get the tense wrong. I think the guidance is that the pretérito is used when there is a specific beginning and end - but is that not the case with “mucha gente no estaba de acuerdo”? Many thanks, Tony
Why use the English translation there is or are, when hay literally means to have? I would rather think of haber means to have in English. Its too confusing to use there is or there are for translating a Spanish verb that actually means to have. Thank you!
in one of the examples,
Verás, el chico se va a enfadar y va a coger y le va a dar un puñetazo.
You'll see, the guy is going to get cross and he's going to go and give him a punch.
where does 'se va + a' comes from? is this irse with other meanings?
Could you direct me to the appropriate lesson?
thanks
The subtlety of this concept is lost on me. Can you explain in more detail the difference between these two sentences, please.
Hacía unos meses que trabajaba con su padre.
He had been working with his dad for a few months.
Trabajaba en la empresa desde hacía tres años.
He had been working in the company for 3 years.
What
do you mean by vive tu a manera
“pasamos a la nariz” is translated as “let’s do the nose”.
Is this correct?
Sample question: "Creo que yo estoy a punto de encontrar la solución."
Is there a reason the "estoy" isn't subjunctive? If it were "espero que" instead of "creo que" would that matter?
Hi, in one of the quizzes, the answer to this question:
Ben ________ la alarma.Write ''Ben had been woken up by the alarm.was: había sido despertado porcould it also be "hubo sido"?
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