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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,988 questions • 9,792 answers • 1,005,724 learners
This sentence must surely read:
María got cross when Marcos arrived home very late.
¿Bajo las AFFIRMATIVE COMMANDS, no debería ser "tráelos"?
In the examples above the translation is in present continuous, but in Spanish the sentence is just using present simple. Is there a difference in meaning between:
En dos dias me mudo a Mexico.
En dos dias estoy mudandome a Mexico.
Gracias!
I was wondering if there was a reply to his question below:
"didn't need to (infinitive) & needn't have (past participle) are used to express the lack of necessity in the past, ..."
Maybe this meaning should be on the list as well, from your lesson that "dejar de" + infinitive means to stop doing something or give up something:
Using dejar de + [infinitive] = to stop doing something/to give up something
In English, we often express the imperfect tense (a past habitual action) using the modal "would":
When I was young, I would eat sugar.
I can't find examples of the Spanish equivalent:
Cuando era joven, comería azúcar.
But just using the Spanish imperfect seems like it might be wrong:
Cuando era joven, comía azúcar.
... seems to translate literally as "When I was young, I was eating sugar", which doesn't seem to clarify that it was a habitual action rather than a one-time thing.
So, how would you say "When I was young, I would eat sugar" in Spanish?
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