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5,501 questions • 8,751 answers • 848,812 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,501 questions • 8,751 answers • 848,812 learners
Why is it fuertemente insteadbif fuertamente.? Thank you
Should I take it from "me está siendo infiel" that he is being unfaithful to me personally i.e. the sentence is as would be spoken by his girlfriend and not by some other acquaintance who observes him to be unfaithful to her?
With the above question, "lo de" was said to be the answer. However, there is a conjugated verb in the clause afterward, "fue". Why isn;t the correct answer "lo de que"? With a conjugated verb, the explanation says to use "lo de que".
Here is an example of something I have asked about before and have sent you a screen print. Unfortunately, the screen print was undecipherable for you. Here is a different approach.
B1 Pronouns
Reciprocal verbs in Spanish and position of the reflexive pronoun
Which is the correct sentence for "We can't marry each other"?
No podemos casarnos. correct No podemos nos casar. No podemos casar nos. No nos podemos casar. correct Nos no podemos casar.As you can see, there are two correct answers, but that is not what is asked in the question by indicating the, which would mean one answer. This is something which occurs quite often in these lessons.
There is a beautiful song, "Yolanda," by the Cuban singer/songwriter Pablo Milanés. The construction of one sentence using faltar confounds me: "Si me faltaras no voy a morirme." Why is faltar conjugated in second person singular? I'm having trouble fitting this usage in with any of the lesson examples. What am I missing? Thank you!
https://www.musica.com/letras.asp?letra=125255
I suggest another song suitable for practicing: Me gustas tu by Manu chao.
The example 'Sierra Nevada se encuentra en la provincia de Granada.' seems to me to suggest passive 'se' rather than reflexive. Perhaps because I tend to translate it as 'is found' (passive). Is that an accurate translation?
Also, I've got in the habit of using the Latin American ubicar and estar ubicado. Are these considered incorrect in Spain?
Saludos
Is there any guidance at all as to which of the accepted placement options is preferred in a given situation? Is the choice totally down to the speaker? Which option is/are most commonly used?
Hola Inma,
In the example: "Esta tarde ayudo a mi madre en el jardín", the point in time when the statement is occurring seems important. Can it not be "esta tarde" at the time of the statement, which would make it the continuous present (even though that tense is not being used, just as the future tense is not being used)? Or is the present tense simply not used in this way?
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