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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,119 questions • 10,022 answers • 1,055,043 learners
"Yo tomo el café con menos leche"--why is "tomo" shown as "have" in the English translation? It is a very common phrase in English to say "I take my coffee with . . . ," so was there a reason to change it to "here?"
1. I find it difficult to think in terms of the Imperfect subjunctive in examples which allude to an event in the future, e.g. "Ojalá nosotros viniésemos el año que viene"... Could we also say "Ojalá nosotros vengamos el año que viene"?
2. [A comment rather than a question]: I personally prefer the "-s-" option for constructing the Imperfect Subjunctive because there is less chance of confusing it with a future construction.
This should be "describe a scene" I think...
Why do we say "pasear al perro" instead of "pasear el perro". Why is the "al" used?
Am very confused by this lesson. I’m not sure what I’m supposed to be turning into feminine, and whether there is a masculine and feminine form in the first place. Why is it cómodamente and not cómodomente?
I was doing a writing exercise, and I put "estar por" instead of "estar a punto de" and I was corrected and "estar por" wasn't shown as an option. I'm wondering why since I have heard and used this expression frequently.
The phrase that has to be translated was, "He was about to go out the door when..."
In the sentence 'Les amenecé seriamente' I don't understand why the indirect object pronoun 'Les' is used. I would have thought it would have been a direct object pronoun ie 'Los' or 'Las'. Are 'they' not the direct object of the threatening? I seem to often have a problem with this. It's ok when it's a straightforward 'I gave the present TO her' for example where it is quite clear but in sentences like the one above I get very confused as it often seems the indirect object pronoun is used. Any advice greatly appreciated.
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