Separated double object pronouns HI, I see this construction sometimes and very few info on it online. But sometimes two pronouns with two verbs in a sentence are separated with one before the first conjugated verb and other attached to the following infinitive verb. In my book for example - el pez numero catource-
1-- una vez la oí confesarle a Bernadette que tenía miedo de volver a equivocarse---
Why not, -- se la oí confesar ?
2-- Mi abuelo no contesta. Se limita a mirarlo con hostilidad.--
Why not: se lo limita a mirar?
What is this type of construction called?
Why separate them? Is this construction interchangeable with the traditional form of keeping pronouns together?
How common is it? I don't see it very often.
Thanks a lot
It seems as if porque would convey the same idea and is probably more often used in conversation. So is de tanto more formal, literary or is it used in the street?
Hi, my understanding was that "un poco" was always used when poco was used as a pronoun, instead of as an adjective or adverb along with the explicit noun?
Ex: Quieres arroz? Si, un poco (de arroz).
Ex: Solo quiero poco arroz.
Ex: Necisito estudiar poco.
Is this not correct?
Thanks!!
*(BTW, this website is so incredibly helpful.
Hi Kiwziq team,
las comunidades indígenas están reclamando que se les devuelva algunas piezas de museo, porque pertenecían a sus antepasados.
I'm slightly confused as to why this uses 'devuelva' and not 'devuelvan' given that it's 'algunas piezas' being returned and 'las comunidades indigenas' doing the demanding. Please could someone offer an explanation?
Many thanks
Dee
How do I add Spanish accents and upside down question marks when completing written exercises? My keyboard does not support Spanish language.
i am confused. there is another lesson that uses deber in perfect tense and deber in present + haber to indicate assumption that something must have happened that is expressed by the main verb as infinitive or past participle. This lesson seems to be speaking of the same thing until the last part that says
Eso debe de haber caducado hace tiempo
That must have expired some time agoI am confused by this 2 very similar lessons. may you point out the differences to me?
how do I use such structure to say something must had been done as in an assumption in the past?
why do you add "me" as in me comería, or me compraría. Just for emphasis? Can one do away with the "me"?
HI, I see this construction sometimes and very few info on it online. But sometimes two pronouns with two verbs in a sentence are separated with one before the first conjugated verb and other attached to the following infinitive verb. In my book for example - el pez numero catource-
1-- una vez la oí confesarle a Bernadette que tenía miedo de volver a equivocarse---
Why not, -- se la oí confesar ?
2-- Mi abuelo no contesta. Se limita a mirarlo con hostilidad.--
Why not: se lo limita a mirar?
What is this type of construction called?
Why separate them? Is this construction interchangeable with the traditional form of keeping pronouns together?
How common is it? I don't see it very often.
Thanks a lot
In the beginning of the exercise, you hint at using the word "parientes" for relatives but I think that the word needs to be added to the list of correct answers because currently, you only get a right answer for using "familiares".
Hola,
Thank you for this lesson. I understand that ningun is used before a noun:
"No tengo ningun dinero para ir de compras hoy.";
"Ningun estudiante hizo la tarea."
My confusion is when concerning when to use "ningun" vs "ninguno"?
Saludos
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