Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi all!

I am trying to understand my Spanish textbook better. One of the vocab phrases is "faltar mucho tiempo para", which the book translates to mean "to have much time left" in english. Also they define "faltar poco tiempo" as meaning "to be short of time for". I thought faltar meant "to miss" so I am just confused on both of these translations and what faltar means in this context.

Why is there a ‘por’ after pagar in the first example and not in the second?                           

No voy a aceptar que pagues por todo.

why do you add "me" as in me comería, or me compraría. Just for emphasis? Can one do away with the "me"?

Hello,

En él puedes percibir 

I assume this translates to 'In it you can perceive'. I did not know that 'él' can be use for 'it'.

Thanks

Amrutha

"Tardé unas pocas horas en hacerlo" is right as well, isn't it?

Esto dice un bebida interesante de Paraguay. Que es un comida importante en Paraguay?

How to I remove Latin America lessons from Dashboard?

How would you answer these questions?  

¿Conoce Ud. nuestros productos gourmets?  No, solamente alguno. or No solamente algunos.  ¿Prefiero Ud. todos los quesos de la caja? No, solamente alguno.  or No, solamente algunos. ¿Desea Ud. estas frutas frescas? No, solamente algunas. or No, solamente alguna.

Another explanation I have seen tells that when the pronoun is part of a phrase within brackets we should be using el que etc rather than just que.  I have fed  the sentence into the respected SpanishChecker with both alternatives and neither was identified as wrong.