Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola! 

I'm having a hard time wrapping my mind around the purpose of doubling down on the indirect object usage in some of these examples:

"Ella le envió un regalo a Miguel. 

She sent a present to Miguel."

In this example, why do you need the le if you already have Miguel. It reads to me literally as "she him sent a present to Miguel" and I suppose it feels like excessive and unnecessary additional language in an already clear sentence. Is it for emphasis? Por favor ayúdame a entender.

Es Paraguay una pais pobre, o una pais rica?

quien son personas famosos de Paraguay?

Como estan los cuidades en Paraguay?

como son los calles y casas en Paraguay?

wouldn't "on the other hand" be a better translation for: por otro lado?

All the examples are in the present tense.     Can this work in other tenses also?

In a grammar textbook, I ran across the structure "la + de + nombre + que + verbo (+ sujeto) (+ tiempo o lugar)" as an intensifier.  Does this have the same function as "qué de"?

why do we use preterito perfecto compuesto for 'I saw' and 'I found', i thought 'i found' would be encontre and 'I saw', yo vi not he contrado and he visto. thanks!

Wouldn't ¿Crees que has aprobado el examen? be "Do you think you have passed the exam?" I don't know the grammatical tense that applies, but on the face of it, it seems the "have" should be represented in the English.

Also, does Spanish have an equivalent of "do?" I think i read that it does not. In English it is often ommitted, so it's probably ok to not always include it in translations.