Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hello Kwiziq team .

I have a question concerning the use of the subjunctive mood.

1. No porque sea gratis significa que me lo vaya a comer todo 

2. No porque sea gratis me lo voy a comer todo.

Are both phrases correct ? What is the nuance when you opt to use the subjunctive or the indicative mood.

Thank you in advance. Your answers are always helpful in solving our grammatical doubts  

I thought gustar was modified by the thing being liked (vs the person/people doing the liking), but when I chose gustan for liking the horse races I was marked wrong. 

I was marked wrong for using “habían” when the sentence was something like “habían muchos mensajes …”. If “había” is used for one thing or many things when would you use “habían”? It sounds more natural to say “habían muchos mensajes …”

I asked kwiziq to search “ Meter vs Poner” to teach me the nuances between both meaning to put. It failed. Why?

I answered “están aconsejando” but it was wrong - it notes that “estan aconsejando” is the correct answer…

But NOTHING in the lesson explains this

If the presence of “a” after a verb means it is “Ir” a not “ser”, Then why is  “yo fui de fiesta an Ibiza” also conjugated “as ir?” The verb is not followed by “a”. Only the noun is followed by a. So why is it “I went,” and not “I was at”?

I find this very confusing. Does the rule apply to a and de alike ?

All the examples are in the present tense.     Can this work in other tenses also?

When to use "hay que" vs "se debe"?

From lesson:

"Hay que recoger cuando ellos terminen.We have to tidy up when they finish."

But this is to do with the nature of this sentence. For other sentences you can replace si with que, for example:

Me encantaría que vinera Carlos.

Me encantaría si viniera Carlos.