Spanish language Q&A Forum

Que son los deportes officiales en paraguay?

Hola

In a lesson, the question asked about the Canary Islands. Since the islands will always be in the ocean, I answered "son' instead of "estan" and it was wrong.

Hola! 

I'm having a hard time wrapping my mind around the purpose of doubling down on the indirect object usage in some of these examples:

"Ella le envió un regalo a Miguel. 

She sent a present to Miguel."

In this example, why do you need the le if you already have Miguel. It reads to me literally as "she him sent a present to Miguel" and I suppose it feels like excessive and unnecessary additional language in an already clear sentence. Is it for emphasis? Por favor ayúdame a entender.

I have a doubt. I came across the following sentences in a book:

1. El ruido me bombardea los tímpanos sin cesar cada día

2. Los sonidos resurgían dentro de mis tímpanos

Sentence 1 seems like a perfect example of how you explained in this article. But what about sentence 2? Why would we use the adjective here instead of the article?

Thanks!

I'm also very confused by this lesson...

The tip in the text of this lesson states "You will never find es followed by bien/mal. However, está can be followed by bueno/malo, but the meaning will be different" (it doesn't really explain what that difference is though).

In the test I checked "Está malo que comas 6 veces al día." (It's bad to eat 6 times a day) as valid and it was marked as wrong. "Está buen que ayudes a tu hermana con los deberes" (It's good that you help your sister with her homework.) was also marked as wrong and it's not easy for me to see why.

It's early in the morning, so perhaps I'm missing something obvious?

Gracias

Geoff

I need the conjugation chart with all pronouns, please.

I thought it stated that ninguna or ninguno could not be used with a nouns??