Spanish language Q&A Forum

Is there a comprehensive rule for when to use (or not use) PARA before an infinitive? I sometimes encounter examples where para is used without the sense of "purpose" that is supposed to trigger the use of "para."  In other words, I can't use the rule "in order to" to translate these sentences.

Cuándo estaba en Australia, tenía muchos problemas para hablar inglés.

Tuvimos muchas dificultades para encontrar la parada de autobús.

Fue un día demasiado bueno para quedarse adentro.

For example, would this be correct?

I cleaned the room, so he would be happy.

Limpié la habitacion,  así que él se sintiera feliz

Could así que and para que both be used in this context?

In the example, 

El armario es dificil de montar, can you say (difícil a montar)?

Is that acceptable in any situation?

When we are referring back to people or persons in Spanish both words are feminine. So by translating, "for those arriving" it would have to be "las que llegan" no? If not what masculine word is "los" referring back to? Thanks.

"... no solo por su físico, sino también por su personalidad ..." >

> Indeed, my Grammar book (by Butt and Benjamin) actually mentions that "sino" is particularly common after a "No sólo ..." construction; [with a bit of luck, I will remember that in future!]

So, it might be worth adding that^ to your " Difference between pero, sino and sino que in Spanish (but) " ... [together with an example]?

You might also decide to add the above grammar-lesson to the guidelines, notes and hints relevant to this exercise? ... As you say, it is a case of two possible different translations of "but", so English people need to think about it carefully.

You answer 'los doctores PREFIERE but the plural form is PREFIEREN, which is an option

Can you help please

Why can't we add these lists to our notebook? That would be extremely helpful. 

You told how not say each person is different.    How do we say it.

or also each dog is different.   or is it just people.

I think that the concept of "verbs like gustar" might become clearer by seeing a literal translation as well as the English interpretation/translation. 

Is this the correct sentence construction for "verbs like gustar"?

Indirect Object + verb like gustar + subject ?

Le entristece la mala noticia = The bad news saddens her.

Could the literal translation be: For her, the news is saddening OR should it be To her, the news saddens? Neither really make sense in English! “Her, the news saddens = The news saddens her” and makes the verb transitive, no? And “her” becomes the Direct Object “la” instead of the Indirect Object “le”. Can “entristecer” be used as a transitive verb AND as a “verb like gustar”?

But surely the more correct Spanish would be: 

Las malas noticias la entristecen OR la entristecen las malas noticias

Are both forms acceptable?

How then can I reconcile la in that last version with the le in the lesson version? "La" is a Direct Object while "le" is an Indirect Object, no?

So, again, can “entristecer” be both transitive and a “verb like gustar”? OR is either version incorrect?

 Phew! HELP?