Spanish language Q&A Forum

When we are referring back to people or persons in Spanish both words are feminine. So by translating, "for those arriving" it would have to be "las que llegan" no? If not what masculine word is "los" referring back to? Thanks.

"... no solo por su físico, sino también por su personalidad ..." >

> Indeed, my Grammar book (by Butt and Benjamin) actually mentions that "sino" is particularly common after a "No sólo ..." construction; [with a bit of luck, I will remember that in future!]

So, it might be worth adding that^ to your " Difference between pero, sino and sino que in Spanish (but) " ... [together with an example]?

You might also decide to add the above grammar-lesson to the guidelines, notes and hints relevant to this exercise? ... As you say, it is a case of two possible different translations of "but", so English people need to think about it carefully.

What about "llegar a ser" and "tranformarse"?  I would like to know the correct usage of these.  Thank you.

In a grammar textbook, I ran across the structure "la + de + nombre + que + verbo (+ sujeto) (+ tiempo o lugar)" as an intensifier.  Does this have the same function as "qué de"?

In the above example from a kwizz I understand the use of the present participle but should the subjunctive conjugation of seguir and continuar not be used here? Thanks

__________ mucho esta noche.

I answered: "He bebido"

I answered this because:

"The use of El Pretérito Perfecto in Latin America depends on regional variations but in general we can say it's restricted to actions started in the past that continue in the present or are not finished, or recent past actions the speaker wants to emphasise." 

"I drank a lot tonight" seems like a recent past action...

What am I failing to understand here?

There's also this part:

"However, in general most Latin American Spanish speakers don't really observe this difference between El Pretérito Indefinido and El Pretérito Perfecto. Most of Latin America tends to just use El Pretérito Indefinido, while in the Andean region speakers tend to just use El Pretérito Perfecto."

So... I have two contradictory sets of information given to me... which one do I use?

It seems to me that this "HINT" is misplaced. The question seems clearly to be an if/conditional expression so what exactly is the point of the "wish/intention in the present"??

Why is "Yo he visto a tu madre esta mañana" more correct than " vi a tu madre esta mañana" for "I saw your mother this morning"? 

I have a doubt. I came across the following sentences in a book:

1. El ruido me bombardea los tímpanos sin cesar cada día

2. Los sonidos resurgían dentro de mis tímpanos

Sentence 1 seems like a perfect example of how you explained in this article. But what about sentence 2? Why would we use the adjective here instead of the article?

Thanks!

Hello Kwiziq team .

I have a question concerning the use of the subjunctive mood.

1. No porque sea gratis significa que me lo vaya a comer todo 

2. No porque sea gratis me lo voy a comer todo.

Are both phrases correct ? What is the nuance when you opt to use the subjunctive or the indicative mood.

Thank you in advance. Your answers are always helpful in solving our grammatical doubts