Spanish language Q&A Forum

I don't seem to be getting this lesson. I freely admit there are things above my head. When I just don't get it, I want to move on to other things (to stay motivated) hoping sometime in the future I'll get it then. Sadly, I am stuck on a subject that I won't even use much as a beginner. I'd like to skip it.  Just my opinion. Thanks. 

Madre Mía ! ... It was probably more like a C2-level translation, not a C1? ... Anyway - thank you for encouraging us to tackle it !

>In sentences where the indirect object is represented by "a + pronoun", and it is at the beginning of the sentence, for example  "a mí, a tí, a ella", it is necessary to repeat the indirect object by using the "short" pronoun (me, te, le, nos, os, les) in the same sentence.

I think this should be reworded. That "and it is at the beginning of the sentence" makes it seem like you don't need the shrot pronoun if you put the "a + pronoun" elsewhere in the sentence. I know one of the examples and the little tip box later clarify this, but I still think rewording that paragraph would help. 

Why "a"  El Cortes..." and not ..en?

Si, me gustaría mucho tener una llama como mascota pero tenía un kangaroo como mascota por muchos años. Creo que son mas carinosas que las llamas.

Why does it say "estoy maravillada" instead of "estoy maravillando"?

Perhaps it would be helpful with these various stem changing verb lessons to explain more clearly that the vowel changes only affect the vowels when they are in syllables that are stressed, rather than giving the impression that the nosotros/as and vosotras/os forms are just arbitrary exceptions. I think that grasping that makes it a lot easier to internalize the pattern than just trying to memorize exceptions without understanding why they work that way. 

why is tenido sometimes with an accent on the nand sometimes without. The correct answer for this question was with an accent wheras another question using tenido was without. My collins dictionary says without. 

I see here that querer does not have an accent for the first person preterito indefinido: quise, whereas some verbs have one, like compré - is there a rule that I can apply to distinguish it, or is it just because querer is irregular?

Thanks

In a 10-question test these was the question:

¿Por qué lo ________ ?
Why are you cursing him?

I expected the answer would be a gerund, but it was not. Why was "cursing" used and not "curse?" As in, "Why (do) you curse him?"