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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,715 questions • 9,212 answers • 907,301 learners
In a 10-question test these was the question:
¿Por qué lo ________ ?
Why are you cursing him?
I expected the answer would be a gerund, but it was not. Why was "cursing" used and not "curse?" As in, "Why (do) you curse him?"
From this lesson, it states that they are all interchangeable.
but i read from elsewhere such as spanishdict, it says el cual, el que etc have to be used after prepositions, and commas.
may i have a clearer explanation on when will we have to use the others, when do we have to use que only.
in numbers is this 12:45With digital times. Do people do like 2:05 or 2:55 some how.Pondering... I would guess people have usual ways they do it. I don't think I have ever said 15 to 2... always 145. ... and you have appointment at say 2. The person might say you appointment is in 10 minutes if the time is 1:50. I think digital clocks have changed things. I wonder if children growing up now know what clockwise means and counter clockwise. ??? Spanish prolly has words for that too.
I learned that when referring to parts of the body, not to use the pronoun mi because it is understood that it is my body. Also does the verb estar refer to something temporary. If so, why does a sentence say va a ser una experiencia relajante?
El concepto de antención plena
la llegada de la atención plena
Why is the article used in the second pharse but not in the first ?
In the quiz the answer was con Uds but I chose what I knew wasn't the right answer ustedes because the Uds would be capitalized in the middle of the sentence. I'm pretty sure that's not correct either. Anyway, I don't think we need these kind of trick questions. My thought is that is a poorly created test question. That said, I'm interested if one ever capitalizes Uds in the middle of a sentence or if the capitalized Uds is standard for the abbreviation of usted and I am wrong here.
>In sentences where the indirect object is represented by "a + pronoun", and it is at the beginning of the sentence, for example "a mí, a tí, a ella", it is necessary to repeat the indirect object by using the "short" pronoun (me, te, le, nos, os, les) in the same sentence.
I think this should be reworded. That "and it is at the beginning of the sentence" makes it seem like you don't need the shrot pronoun if you put the "a + pronoun" elsewhere in the sentence. I know one of the examples and the little tip box later clarify this, but I still think rewording that paragraph would help.
I think at first boyfriend. ... lol both muy and mucha in same sentence. I like that.
Así que, es una broma o no?
Here the newspaper is sold cheaply.
I realize "barato" can work as an adjective or an adverb, but given its placement within the sentence used in the example, this reads to me like "The cheap newspaper is sold here," as if the expensive newspaper is sold across the street—they probably charge you just to look at the headlines!
Would it be clearer to say, "Aquí se vende barato el periódico"? Or am I mistaken in that this could only be translated as "cheaply" no matter where "barato" appears?
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