Spanish language Q&A Forum

I'm also very confused by this lesson...

The tip in the text of this lesson states "You will never find es followed by bien/mal. However, está can be followed by bueno/malo, but the meaning will be different" (it doesn't really explain what that difference is though).

In the test I checked "Está malo que comas 6 veces al día." (It's bad to eat 6 times a day) as valid and it was marked as wrong. "Está buen que ayudes a tu hermana con los deberes" (It's good that you help your sister with her homework.) was also marked as wrong and it's not easy for me to see why.

It's early in the morning, so perhaps I'm missing something obvious?

Gracias

Geoff

 Here the newspaper is sold cheaply.

I realize "barato" can work as an adjective or an adverb, but given its placement within the sentence used in the example, this reads to me like "The cheap newspaper is sold here," as if the expensive newspaper is sold across the street—they probably charge you just to look at the headlines!

El concepto de antención plena

la llegada de la atención plena

Why is the article used in the second pharse but not in the first ?

>In sentences where the indirect object is represented by "a + pronoun", and it is at the beginning of the sentence, for example  "a mí, a tí, a ella", it is necessary to repeat the indirect object by using the "short" pronoun (me, te, le, nos, os, les) in the same sentence.

I think this should be reworded. That "and it is at the beginning of the sentence" makes it seem like you don't need the shrot pronoun if you put the "a + pronoun" elsewhere in the sentence. I know one of the examples and the little tip box later clarify this, but I still think rewording that paragraph would help. 

I learned that when referring to parts of the body, not to use the pronoun mi because it is understood that it is my body.  Also does the verb estar refer to something temporary. If so, why does a sentence say va a ser una experiencia relajante?

Así que, es una broma o no? 

Hello Kwiziq team .

I have a question concerning the use of the subjunctive mood.

1. No porque sea gratis significa que me lo vaya a comer todo 

2. No porque sea gratis me lo voy a comer todo.

Are both phrases correct ? What is the nuance when you opt to use the subjunctive or the indicative mood.

Thank you in advance. Your answers are always helpful in solving our grammatical doubts