once again gustar!Just when I thought I'd gotten the hang of gustar and verbs like it, along comes: Pues, me ha dicho Lola que le gustas a Ricardo.
So, "me ha dicho Lola que" = "Lola told me that", "gustas" is second person singular as applies to "you" the person being spoken to, no? "le" is the Indirect Object for "to/by him", si? Is the "a" before "Ricardo" the personal "a" or the preposition "to" ? Entonces; "le gustas a Ricardo" = to him you are pleasing (Ricardo) ??
But Ricardo is the subject and I thought it would be "te gusta Ricardo" = Ricardo is pleased by you / you are liked by Ricardo. Does "gustas" refer to Ricardo or to Sonia and to whom would 3ra persona "gusta" apply?
But I'm thinking:
Le gustas a Ricardo = to him you are pleasing (liked) by Ricardo (personal a ?) Ricardo likes you.
whereas: Te gusta Ricardo = By you is liked Ricardo. You like Ricardo.
HELP?? porfis . . .
When I was a teacher we called this type of thinking "categorization", being able to tell things apart. Nicely done.
In the above example from a kwizz I understand the use of the present participle but should the subjunctive conjugation of seguir and continuar not be used here? Thanks
How do I add Spanish accents and upside down question marks when completing written exercises? My keyboard does not support Spanish language.
it seems like luego de is the only difference between LA and Europe spainish?
If we use the indicative after a truth, why not after "es genial que"? If something is great, then it's a truth that it is thus.
Hi, I am trying to understand this lesson, and am confused by the two examples shown.
Why on the second example you put (accidentally) but not on the first example?
A Juan se le olvidó traer el hielo.
Juan forgot to bring the ice.A Juan se le olvidó traer cervezas.Juan [accidentally] forgot to bring beersI understand that third person singular is used for both, and thought both examples are ‘accidental’ hence using SE.
Thanks
Could you say 'poner una chaquetta' instead of 'llevar una chaquetta'?
Just when I thought I'd gotten the hang of gustar and verbs like it, along comes: Pues, me ha dicho Lola que le gustas a Ricardo.
So, "me ha dicho Lola que" = "Lola told me that", "gustas" is second person singular as applies to "you" the person being spoken to, no? "le" is the Indirect Object for "to/by him", si? Is the "a" before "Ricardo" the personal "a" or the preposition "to" ? Entonces; "le gustas a Ricardo" = to him you are pleasing (Ricardo) ??
But Ricardo is the subject and I thought it would be "te gusta Ricardo" = Ricardo is pleased by you / you are liked by Ricardo. Does "gustas" refer to Ricardo or to Sonia and to whom would 3ra persona "gusta" apply?
But I'm thinking:
Le gustas a Ricardo = to him you are pleasing (liked) by Ricardo (personal a ?) Ricardo likes you.
whereas: Te gusta Ricardo = By you is liked Ricardo. You like Ricardo.
HELP?? porfis . . .
Hola,
Would the sentence above still make sense in Spanish if it were reordered thus:
El otro día mi abuela me llamó tres veces.
Saludos,
Colin
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