Spanish language Q&A Forum

i find the way the speaker speaks is not natural compared to those i heard from TV

Why is "Yo he visto a tu madre esta mañana" more correct than " vi a tu madre esta mañana" for "I saw your mother this morning"? 

Hello Kwiziq team .

I have a question concerning the use of the subjunctive mood.

1. No porque sea gratis significa que me lo vaya a comer todo 

2. No porque sea gratis me lo voy a comer todo.

Are both phrases correct ? What is the nuance when you opt to use the subjunctive or the indicative mood.

Thank you in advance. Your answers are always helpful in solving our grammatical doubts  

__________ mucho esta noche.

I answered: "He bebido"

I answered this because:

"The use of El Pretérito Perfecto in Latin America depends on regional variations but in general we can say it's restricted to actions started in the past that continue in the present or are not finished, or recent past actions the speaker wants to emphasise." 

"I drank a lot tonight" seems like a recent past action...

What am I failing to understand here?

There's also this part:

"However, in general most Latin American Spanish speakers don't really observe this difference between El Pretérito Indefinido and El Pretérito Perfecto. Most of Latin America tends to just use El Pretérito Indefinido, while in the Andean region speakers tend to just use El Pretérito Perfecto."

So... I have two contradictory sets of information given to me... which one do I use?

Of all the paragraphs I've practiced in Kwiziq, this one has to have been the worst! I truly hope there will be no others like it. This was a TWO sentence paragraph! The second sentence went on and on for over 30 words! The voice inflections were quite misleading.  Horrible.

Pati Ecuamiga

A useful addition to your program would be a way to study vocabulary, like flashcards or something. Any plans for that?

It seems as if we can think of "lo" as "that," as in, "That I don't know" for "no lo se." This seems to fit with all the examples above.

I was marked wrong for using “habían” when the sentence was something like “habían muchos mensajes …”. If “había” is used for one thing or many things when would you use “habían”? It sounds more natural to say “habían muchos mensajes …”

In the quiz, the sentence was "When I go to Spain, I always go to the beach".  - "___________ voy a Espana, siempre voy a la playa"

The answer is "Cuando" without an accent.  In the lesson, it says that cuando without an accent is a relative adverb which introduces a depennt clause.  In the above example, what is the dependent clause that "cuando" is introducing?  I am not a gramarian, but it seems like both of the above clauses are independent.  That may be incorrect, but could you please explain?

Why is the usage of nosotros as above been marked wrong