use of the subjuctive mood

Oloo LeahA1Kwiziq community member

use of the subjuctive mood

Hello Kwiziq team .

I have a question concerning the use of the subjunctive mood.

1. No porque sea gratis significa que me lo vaya a comer todo 

2. No porque sea gratis me lo voy a comer todo.

Are both phrases correct ? What is the nuance when you opt to use the subjunctive or the indicative mood.

Thank you in advance. Your answers are always helpful in solving our grammatical doubts  

Asked 7 months ago
InmaKwiziq team member

Hola Oloo Leah

Both sentences are correct although 1 is a bit more colloquial and it may be agrammatical. I think to use is 100% correctly you'd need something like: El hecho de que sea gratis no significa que me lo vaya a comer todo. 

In number 1 both the subjunctive (me lo vaya a comer) or the indicative (me lo voy a comer) can be used. It depends on whether you want to "declare" that information: that you are going to eat it all (=indicative) or you use that information as a background information, as an already known information (=subjunctive). 

In number 2 you can only use the indicative because you have no "que" triggering any subjunctive and if you shuffle the elements a bit in the sentence, you are again declaring something:

No me lo voy a comer todo porque sea gratis. 

You wouldn't use the subjunctive here, it'd be incorrect "No me lo vaya a comer todo..." (incorrect).

I hope this clarified it. 

Trickey one though : ))

Saludos

use of the subjuctive mood

Hello Kwiziq team .

I have a question concerning the use of the subjunctive mood.

1. No porque sea gratis significa que me lo vaya a comer todo 

2. No porque sea gratis me lo voy a comer todo.

Are both phrases correct ? What is the nuance when you opt to use the subjunctive or the indicative mood.

Thank you in advance. Your answers are always helpful in solving our grammatical doubts  

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