Spanish language Q&A Forum

Gracias Silvia for reminding me to find time to read this classic!

I have had 2 copies of this wonderful novel ready and waiting to be read for some time now; one English copy and the other in Spanish.

For anyone that may be interested, Netflix are showing the adaptation of this fabulous story- it was released on the 17th I believe. It's my Netflix film for this weekend :))

I have a doubt. I came across the following sentences in a book:

1. El ruido me bombardea los tímpanos sin cesar cada día

2. Los sonidos resurgían dentro de mis tímpanos

Sentence 1 seems like a perfect example of how you explained in this article. But what about sentence 2? Why would we use the adjective here instead of the article?

Thanks!

Just want to confirm that the use of the subjunctive follows the normal pattern: when the thing is unknown, we use the subjunctive to indicate "whatever".

Te presto mi ropa; puedes ponerte lo que más te guste.

Thanks.

 Here the newspaper is sold cheaply.

I realize "barato" can work as an adjective or an adverb, but given its placement within the sentence used in the example, this reads to me like "The cheap newspaper is sold here," as if the expensive newspaper is sold across the street—they probably charge you just to look at the headlines!

Thanks!

I thought gustar was modified by the thing being liked (vs the person/people doing the liking), but when I chose gustan for liking the horse races I was marked wrong. 

i find the way the speaker speaks is not natural compared to those i heard from TV

1. I notice that in the headings of this subject, the "de" is placed in parentheses and that while most of the examples keep the "de", a couple don't, that is only "antes que" is used.  Can you explain why this is so? Is there a grammatical reason or rule?

2. Is there a subtle, nuanced difference between "Despues de que" and "Luego de que", or are they completely interchangeable regarding meaning and use?

3. Is the tense of the subjunctive verb in the subordinate clause (i.e., presente de subjuntivo vs. pretérito imperfecto subjuntivo) determined by the indicative tense in the main clause?

__________ mucho esta noche.

I answered: "He bebido"

I answered this because:

"The use of El Pretérito Perfecto in Latin America depends on regional variations but in general we can say it's restricted to actions started in the past that continue in the present or are not finished, or recent past actions the speaker wants to emphasise." 

"I drank a lot tonight" seems like a recent past action...

What am I failing to understand here?

There's also this part:

"However, in general most Latin American Spanish speakers don't really observe this difference between El Pretérito Indefinido and El Pretérito Perfecto. Most of Latin America tends to just use El Pretérito Indefinido, while in the Andean region speakers tend to just use El Pretérito Perfecto."

So... I have two contradictory sets of information given to me... which one do I use?

Why is the usage of nosotros as above been marked wrong