th difference between hace -v- desde haceA valuable lesson! But can you please explain the difference in the use of "hace" and "desde hace"? It seems that "hace" means "ago":
Lo compré hace tres semanas. - I bought it three weeks ago.
And that "desde hace" means "for": Lo tengo desde hace tres semanas. - I’ve had it for three weeks.
However I keep coming across examples where either "desde hace" or "hace" can mean both "for" or "ago". Does it depend on context as to which one means "for" or "ago" or are they interchangeable?
It seems that translation is dependent upon interpretation:
"que no saldrá del cajón y le saldrán telerañas" translates as "which won't leave the drawer and it leaves with cobwebs" BUT is interpreted to mean "which will stay in the drawer gathering cobwebs".
I note that in Mexico, official documents have to be translated "literally" but in the case above, that really wouldn't make much sense! How far can one go in interpreting versus translating?
xx
Do we also use a zero article when talking about other fundamental aspects of who we are? I am thinking of things like gender (I'm a woman; I'm a man) or familial identity (I'm a mom; I'm an uncle).
Hi
Why is the following sentence in the imperfect subjunctive? Could it not use the present?
Me gustaría que vieran el deporte como una herramienta para empoderarse.
Thank you!
Is the preposition "a" used for other cases in Spanish besides expressing a part of the day?
“I am confused when " preterito " is appended to most of the tenses. This practice is not widely used in Spain or Latin countries. Why not use the tenses which are commonly used. I know that the preterite is used for past tense so when preterito perfecto subjuntivo is mentioned I expect that the past subjunctive is meant NOT the perfect subjunctive! I wonder whether other participants experience the same problem.“ In school, we never learned the English equivalents of these various subjunctive terms. We didn’t really learn much about the subjunctive in English at all. It was a whole new concept beginning to learn it in Spanish. How is it taught to Spanish speaking children? Do they find it confusing?
Like23 years agoShareIn the example "Usted está pálido", I might be referring to someone looking unwell, correct? However, if I was pointing out that someone is pale because they are very white skinned just by nature and I was describing them to a friend, I would say "El es muy pálido", correct? And use the ser conjugation?
If isimo or ito or mente is used can either be used for these words as a suffixes.
If any one can inform
The lesson addresses masculine singular nouns but not feminine singular nouns.
Would we say:
El guiso lleva mucha salvia.
OR Comiste mucha coliflor.
Thanks.
A valuable lesson! But can you please explain the difference in the use of "hace" and "desde hace"? It seems that "hace" means "ago":
Lo compré hace tres semanas. - I bought it three weeks ago.
And that "desde hace" means "for": Lo tengo desde hace tres semanas. - I’ve had it for three weeks.
However I keep coming across examples where either "desde hace" or "hace" can mean both "for" or "ago". Does it depend on context as to which one means "for" or "ago" or are they interchangeable?
It seems that translation is dependent upon interpretation:
"que no saldrá del cajón y le saldrán telerañas" translates as "which won't leave the drawer and it leaves with cobwebs" BUT is interpreted to mean "which will stay in the drawer gathering cobwebs".
I note that in Mexico, official documents have to be translated "literally" but in the case above, that really wouldn't make much sense! How far can one go in interpreting versus translating?
xx
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