Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola! Gracias por ese punto de gramática. Tenía una pregunta sobre ese tema. Porque decimos ''vete'' (go away!) en lugar de ''vate''? Porque la tercera persona del singular al presente del indicativo es ''él/ella va''. Porque utilizamos el presente del subjuntivo aquí? Gracias :-)

How would you say, "I am proud of myself" and "I will do it myself"?

It seems as if we can think of "lo" as "that," as in, "That I don't know" for "no lo se." This seems to fit with all the examples above.

i find the way the speaker speaks is not natural compared to those i heard from TV

When I read into this, I found it a little confusing, we would actually say, he was meeting the lawyer tomorrow, to mean, He is meeting the lawyer tomorrow. 

I think we say it as it was a decision taken before the present or the future. So for once a literal translation would work?

In view of the explanation of "ir" vs. "irse" in this lesson, how would one contrast "irse" vs. "salir"

__________ mucho esta noche.

I answered: "He bebido"

I answered this because:

"The use of El Pretérito Perfecto in Latin America depends on regional variations but in general we can say it's restricted to actions started in the past that continue in the present or are not finished, or recent past actions the speaker wants to emphasise." 

"I drank a lot tonight" seems like a recent past action...

What am I failing to understand here?

There's also this part:

"However, in general most Latin American Spanish speakers don't really observe this difference between El Pretérito Indefinido and El Pretérito Perfecto. Most of Latin America tends to just use El Pretérito Indefinido, while in the Andean region speakers tend to just use El Pretérito Perfecto."

So... I have two contradictory sets of information given to me... which one do I use?

Why is the usage of nosotros as above been marked wrong

I'm a bit confused on when to use hacia vs. para for "toward" a destination?  Two of the introductory examples in this section indicate para can be used for "to/toward".  One of these examples is "Vamos para la playa porque hay una fiesta".   Would it be incorrect to say "Vamos hacia la playa porque hay una fiesta"?   My sense is that "hacia" means just going toward an end point or destination, without implying an actual arrival or end point.  Is this the difference?  Thanks for clarifying.